Class 5 Science MCQs
Updated: 02 Aug 2022
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These MCQs are collected from the Class 5 Science MCQs based on Curriculum 2020 according to the New Course (Single National Curriculum) for PST/CT/TT/AT and other related tests taken by NTS, PPSC, FPSC, PMS, FTS, ETEA and ……. We will also upload other types of MCQs as well for job seekers. If you find any mistake in the quizzes kindly contact us through this link or WhatsApp at 03465399571 or click on the WhatsApp icon appears on the right corner of the Website. For updates regarding quizzes, notes, and videos, or want to give us suggestions kindly like and follow our Facebook page. Moreover, if you find any objectionable content on our website please also notify us. Thanks.
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Class 5 Science MCQs
Chapter # 1: Classification of Living Things
(1). We placed the organisms of _________characteristics in one group.(a) Similar
(b) No
(c) Different
(d) All
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Similar
Explanation: Organisms with similar characteristics are placed in the same group to make classification easier and more organized.
(2). To put organisms into separate groups based on similarities and differences is called_________.
(a) Characteristics
(b) Animals
(c) Plants
(d) Classification
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Classification
Explanation: Classification is arranging organisms into groups based on their similarities and differences.
(3). The large groups of organisms are called_______.
(a) Characteristics
(b) Animals
(c) Plants
(d) Kingdom
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Kingdom
Explanation: The largest groups of organisms, which are classified based on common characteristics, are called kingdoms.
(4). The organisms have been divided into __________ kingdoms.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Two
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Five
Explanation: Organisms are classified into five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
(5). Monera are made of _________ cell.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Many
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) One
Explanation: Monera are single-celled organisms, so they are made up of only one cell.
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Difficult
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Simple
Explanation: Monera has a simple structure compared to other organisms.
(7). ________ belong to kingdom monera.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Paramecium
(c) Algae
(d) Bacteria
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria are a type of Monera, along with other organisms like cyanobacteria.
(8). The singular of Bacteria is ________.
(a) Bacto
(b) Bacteri
(c) Bacterium
(d) Bacterial
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Bacterium
Explanation: The singular form of “Bacteria” is “Bacterium”.
(9). Usually, Protista lives in _______.
(a) Desert
(b) Parasite
(c) Water
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Water
Explanation: Protista are typically found in water habitats, although some can also be found in moist terrestrial environments.
(10). Amoeba, paramecium, and algae belong to kingdom ________.
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Protista
Explanation: Amoeba, Paramecium, and Algae are examples of Protista.
(11). Amoeba, and paramecium are made of______.
(a) One cell
(b) Two cells
(c) Many cells
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) One cell
Explanation: Amoeba and paramecium are examples of unicellular organisms, because they are made up of only one cell. However, Spirogyra is a multicellular Algae, composed of many cells arranged in a filamentous structure. Amoeba and paramecium carry out all life processes, such as respiration, digestion, and reproduction, within a single cell.
(12). ________ may consist of one cell or many cells.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Paramecium
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Algae
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Algae
Explanation: Algae can be unicellular, like Chlamydomonas, or multicellular, like Spirogyra.
(13). Fungi need _______ for growth.
(a) Dry
(b) Desert
(c) Moist
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Moist
Explanation: Fungi typically thrive in moist environments.
(14). _______ do not have chlorophyll.
(a) Amoeba
(b) Paramecium
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Fungi
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Fungi
Explanation: Fungi do not have chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis.
(15). Fungi cannot make their own food because it has ______ chlorophyll.
(a) No
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) Very high
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) No
Explanation: Fungi lack chlorophyll, which is necessary for photosynthesis.
(16). _______ is a microscopic fungus.
(a) Yeast
(b) Amoeba
(c) Paramecium
(d) Spirogyra
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Yeast
Explanation: Yeast is a type of fungus that is typically used in baking and brewing.
(17). ___________ is also called black bread mold.
(a) Yeast
(b) Mushroom
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Paramecium
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Rhizopus
Explanation: Rhizopus is a common type of black bread mold.
(18). Mushroom is a type of _______.
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: Mushroom is a type of fungus.
(19). The example of large fungi is________.
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mushroom
(c) Yeast
(d) Plant
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Mushroom
Explanation: Mushrooms are a type of fungi that can grow to a large size.
(20). The organisms belonging to kingdom ________ can make their food by using the energy of the sun, as they have chlorophyll.
(a) Fungi
(b) Animalia
(c) Monera
(d) Plantae
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Plantae
Explanation: Organisms in the kingdom Plantae, which includes plants, have chlorophyll and can perform photosynthesis.
(21). The organisms included in kingdom ________ are called animals.
(a) Fungi
(b) Animalia
(c) Monera
(d) Plantae
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Animalia
Explanation: Organisms in the kingdom Animalia are animals.
(22). Which of the following have chlorophyll?
(a) Plantae
(b) Fungi
(c) Animalia
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Plantae
Explanation: Organisms in the kingdom Plantae (plants) have chlorophyll.
(23). Flowering plants are divided into ______ groups.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Two
Explanation: Flowering plants are divided into two main groups: monocots and dicots.
(24). The flowering plants whose seeds have one cotyledon are called________.
(a) Monocot plant
(b) Dicot plant
(c) Tri cot plant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Monocot plant
Explanation: Monocot plants have seeds with one cotyledon.
(25). Sugarcane, wheat, rice, bamboo, and maize are examples of _________.
(a) Monocot plant
(b) Dicot plant
(c) Tri cot plant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Monocot plant
Explanation: These plants have seeds with one cotyledon and are examples of monocots.
(26). The flowering plants whose seeds have two cotyledons are called _______.
(a) Monocot plant
(b) Dicot plant
(c) Tri cot plant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Dicot plant
Explanation: Dicot plants have seeds with two cotyledons.
(27). Mango, guava, rose, and pea are examples of dicot plants.
(a) Monocot plant
(b) Dicot plant
(c) Tri cot plant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Dicot plant
Explanation: These plants have seeds with two cotyledons and are examples of dicots.
(28). Animals can be divided into ________ groups based on the backbone.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Two
Explanation: Animals can be divided into two main groups based on the presence or absence of a backbone: vertebrates and invertebrates.
(29). The animals have ______ in their body are called vertebrates.
(a) Hands
(b) Skin
(c) Backbone
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Backbone
Explanation: Vertebrates are the animals that have a backbone.
(30). All vertebrates have _________ skeleton made of bones.
(a) External
(b) Internal
(c) No
(d) One
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Internal
Explanation: Vertebrates have an internal skeleton made of bones.
(31). The body of vertebrates is divided into ______ parts:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: The body of vertebrates is typically divided into three main parts: the head, abdomen, and tail.
(32). The body of vertebrates consists of _______ part/s.
(a) Head
(b) Abdomen
(c) Tail
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: The body of vertebrates consists of the head, trunk, and tail.
(33). The skin of vertebrates is covered with scales, feathers, or hairs.
(a) Scales
(b) Feathers
(c) Hairs
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Different vertebrate groups have different skin coverings: fish have scales, birds have feathers, and mammals have hair.
(34). The animals have no backbone in their body called ¬________.
(a) Vertebrates
(b) Invertebrates
(c) Mammals
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Invertebrates
Explanation: Invertebrates are the animals that do not have a backbone.
(35). The vertebrates have been divided into _______ groups.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Five
Explanation: Based on their skeletal structure, vertebrates are divided into five main groups: fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. Each group has distinct characteristics that set it apart from the others.
(36). Fish have ________ on their skin.
(a) Feather
(b) Hairs
(c) Scales
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Scales
Explanation: Fish have scales on their skin, which provide protection and reduce water resistance as they move through the water. These scales can vary in size, shape, and arrangement depending on the fish species.
(37). Fish breathe through the _________.
(a) Skin
(b) Gills
(c) Lungs
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Gills
Explanation: Fish breathe through gills, specialized organs for gas exchange in water.
(38). Reproduction in fish takes place through_____.
(a) Direct birth of young ones
(b) Eggs
(c) Asexual reproduction
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Eggs
Explanation: Most fish reproduce by laying eggs.
(39). __________ can live on land and also in water.
(a) Reptile
(b) Amphibians
(c) Fish
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Amphibians
Explanation: Amphibians are vertebrates that can live both on land and in water.
(40). Amphibians ______ through lungs and skin.
(a) Reproduce
(b) Eat
(c) Digest
(d) Respire
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Respire
Explanation: Amphibians can respire through both their lungs and their skin. Their skin is thin and moist, allowing for the exchange of gases, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, between the environment and their bloodstream. In addition to skin respiration, many amphibians also have lungs, which they use to breathe air when they are on land.
(41). Amphibians lay eggs in/on________.
(a) Desert
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Water
Explanation: Amphibians typically lay their eggs in water.
(42). Frogs, toads, salamanders, and newts are examples of_________.
(a) Fish
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d) Insect
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Amphibians
Explanation: These are all examples of amphibians.
(43). Amphibians depend on _______ for reproduction and development.
(a) Desert
(b) Forest
(c) Water
(d) Land
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Water
Explanation: Amphibians depend on water for reproduction and development because they lay their eggs in water and typically develop their larvae in water.
(44). _________ are called creeping animals.
(a) Fish
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d) Insect
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Reptiles are often called creeping animals because they move by creeping or crawling on the ground.
(45). Reptiles lay eggs in/on _______.
(a) Desert
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Land
Explanation: Reptiles typically lay their eggs on land.
(46). Reproduction in reptiles takes place through ___________.
(a) Direct birth of young ones
(b) Eggs
(c) Asexual reproduction
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Eggs
Explanation: Reptiles reproduce by laying eggs.
(47). Lizard, crocodile, snake, and tortoise are examples of ___________.
(a) Fish
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d) Insect
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Reptiles
Explanation: These are all examples of reptiles.
(48). Dinosaurs were the largest ________ of ancient times, but they have become extinct.
(a) Fish
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d) Insect
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Dinosaurs were a type of animal that lived a long time ago. They were big and walked on land. There were many different kinds of dinosaurs, some small and some huge. They were reptiles, which means they had scales and laid eggs. However, they are not around anymore. They disappeared a long time ago, but some of their relatives, like birds, are still alive today.
(49). The birds have _______.
(a) Feather
(b) Beak
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: Birds have feathers and beaks.
(50). The bones of birds are_______.
(a) Strong
(b) Hollow
(c) Heavyweight
(d) No weight
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Hollow
Explanation: The bones of birds are hollow, which makes them lightweight and suited for flight.
(51). The weight of birds is less because of:
(a) Feather
(b) Hollow bones
(c) Legs
(d) Shape of body
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Hollow bones
Explanation: Bird bones are hollow, which makes them lightweight and helps birds fly more easily. Hollow bones also provide support and strength while reducing the overall weight of the bird’s skeleton. This adaptation allows birds to have a strong, lightweight skeleton that is well-suited for flight.
(52). Some birds cannot fly and are called _______.
(a) Domestic
(b) Forest
(c) Running birds
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Running birds
Explanation: Some birds, like ostriches, emus, and cassowaries, have strong legs and are unable to fly. Instead, they are known as running birds because they use their powerful legs to run quickly on the ground. These birds have evolved to be fast runners and rely on their speed to escape predators and find food.
(53). Kiwi and ostrich are _________ birds.
(a) Amphibians
(b) Flying
(c) Running
(d) Mammals
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Running
Explanation: Kiwi and ostrich are examples of running birds.
(54). _______ is an example of webbed feet birds.
(a) Hen
(b) Ostrich
(c) Eagle
(d) Duck
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Duck
Explanation: Ducks have webbed feet, which help them swim. Webbed feet are feet with skin stretched between the toes. This allows animals, such as ducks, swim better by increasing the surface area of their feet, allowing them to push more water and move through the water with greater ease.
(55). The largest flying bird is_______.
(a) Ostrich
(b) Hummingbird
(c) Eagle
(d) Roaster
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Eagle
Explanation: The largest flying bird is the Albatross.
(56). The smallest bird in the world is_________.
(a) Sparrow
(b) Kiwi
(c) Penguin
(d) Hummingbird
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Hummingbird
Explanation: The smallest bird in the world is the bee hummingbird, which measures about 2.0 inches (5.1 cm) in length and weighs about 0.07 ounces (2.0 grams).
(57). _________ is a hunter bird.
(a) Penguin
(b) Hummingbird
(c) Hawk
(d) Ostrich
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Hawk
Explanation: Hawks are known for their hunting skills.
(58). Penguin lives on_______.
(a) Desert
(b) Dry Land
(c) Snow
(d) Hot places
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Snow
Explanation: Penguins are found in cold climates, typically in Antarctica.
(59). ____________ live in the holes of the tree trunks.
(a) Woodpeckers
(b) Eagle
(c) Hawk
(d) Kiwi
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Woodpeckers
Explanation: Woodpeckers are known for their ability to peck holes in tree trunks.
(60). Birds have evolved from a generation of carnivore dinosaur.
(a) Ostrich
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Dinosaur
Explanation: Birds have evolved from a generation of carnivore dinosaurs. This is supported by considerable fossil evidence and scientific research, which suggests that modern birds are direct descendants of theropod dinosaurs, a group of bipedal, mostly carnivorous dinosaurs that includes well-known species like Velociraptor and Tyrannosaurus rex.
(61). The bird park is called ________.
(a) Forest
(b) Cage
(c) Aviary
(d) Changa manga
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Aviary
Explanation: A bird park is a place where birds are kept and usually displayed to the public. These parks often have large enclosures or aviaries, large cages or nets where birds can fly freely and interact with each other.
(62). The animals that give milk and have fur or hair on their body are known as_________.
(a) Reptile
(b) Birds
(c) Amphibians
(d) Mammals
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Mammals
Explanation: Mammals are characterized by the presence of mammary glands, which produce milk for their young, and the presence of hair or fur.
(63). Reproduction in mammals takes place by giving _______.
(a) Egg
(b) Birth to young one
(c) Reproduction doesn’t take place
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Birth to young one
Explanation: Mammals give birth to live young ones.
(64). Horse, cow, goat, tiger, cat, and human are examples of _________.
(a) Reptile
(b) Birds
(c) Amphibians
(d) Mammals
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Mammals
Explanation: These are all examples of mammals.
(65). _________ is a flying mammal.
(a) Eagle
(b) Bat
(c) Hawk
(d) Sparrow
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Bat
Explanation: Bats are flying mammals.
(66). ______ is the only mammal that lays eggs but feeds milk to the young ones.
(a) Eagle
(b) Bat
(c) Hawk
(d) Platypus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Platypus
Explanation: Platypus is a mammal that lays eggs but produces milk to feed its young ones.
(67). _______ keeps its newborn babies in an external pouch on the belly.
(a) Kangaroo
(b) Bat
(c) Hawk
(d) Platypus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Kangaroo
Explanation: Kangaroos have a pouch that they carry and nurse their young.
(68). Among the vertebrates in the world, _________ are the largest groups.
(a) Birds
(b) Mammals
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: Birds and mammals are classes of vertebrate animals, with birds belonging to the class Aves and mammals belonging to the class Mammalia.
(69). _______ are invertebrates.
(a) Reptile
(b) Bat
(c) Platypus
(d) Sponges
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Sponges
Explanation: Sponges are invertebrates that belong to the phylum Porifera.
(70). Sponges have _______ externally.
(a) Pores
(b) Canals
(c) Stones
(d) Worms
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Pores
Explanation: Sponges have pores on their body for water intake and canals for water circulation.
(71). Sponges have _______ internally.
(a) Pores
(b) Canals
(c) Stones
(d) Worms
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Canals
Explanation: Sponges have an internal canal system for water circulation.
(72). Sponges are _________ animals.
(a) Aquatic
(b) In aquatic
(c) Land
(d) Desert
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Aquatic
Explanation: Sponges are aquatic animals, meaning they live in water.
(73). Worms are ________ animals.
(a) Hard bodied
(b) Soft bodied
(c) Rough bodied
(d) Echinoderid body
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Soft-bodied
Explanation: Worms have soft bodies.
(74). The body of a worm is ________ and cylindrical.
(a) Pores
(b) Canals
(c) Round
(d) Flat
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Round
Explanation: Worms have round and cylindrical bodies.
(75). Worms have _______ legs.
(a) Two
(b) Six
(c) Three pairs
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) No
Explanation: Worms do not have legs.
(76). The body of _______ is segmented.
(a) Earthworm and tapeworm
(b) Flatworm and roundworm
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Earthworm and tapeworm
Explanation: Earthworms and tapeworms have segmented bodies.
(77). The body of _______ are not segmented.
(a) Earthworm and tapeworm
(b) Flatworm and roundworm
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Flatworm and roundworm
Explanation: Flatworms and roundworms do not have segmented bodies.
(78). ________ are invertebrates.
(a) Birds
(b) Bat
(c) Insects
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Insects
Explanation: Insects are invertebrates, meaning they do not have a backbone.
(79). The body of insects is divided into _________ parts.
(a) Head
(b) Thorax
(c) Abdomen
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: The body of insects is divided into three main parts: head, thorax, and abdomen.
(80). Insects have _________ pairs of legs.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: Insects typically have six legs divided into three pairs.
(81). The body of insects is divided into _____ parts.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: The body of insects is divided into three parts: head, thorax, and abdomen.
(82). The exoskeleton ______ the body.
(a) Protects
(b) Supports
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: The exoskeleton of insects both protects and supports the body.
(83). ________ looks like a stick.
(a) Stick insects
(b) Leaf insects
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Stick insects
Explanation: Stick insects are green or brown and look like sticks. They are also known as walking sticks.
(84). The stick insect is also known as ________ stick.
(a) Static
(b) Jumping
(c) Walking
(d) Green
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Walking
Explanation: Stick insects are also known as walking sticks or stick-bugs.
(85). Molluscs are______.
(a) Vertebrates
(b) Invertebrates
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Invertebrates
Explanation: Molluscs are invertebrates.
(86). Molluscs are ________ animals.
(a) Hard bodied
(b) Soft bodied
(c) Rough bodied
(d) Echinoderm body
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Soft-bodied
Explanation: Molluscs typically have soft bodies.
(87). Snail, oyster, and octopus are examples of _______.
(a) Echinoderms
(b) Molluscs
(c) Insects
(d) Worms
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Molluscs
Explanation: These are all examples of molluscs.
(88). Which molluscs are covered with shells?
(a) Snail
(b) Oyster
(c) Both snail & oyster
(d) Octopus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both snail & oyster
Explanation: Both snails and oysters have shells.
(89). Which molluscs are without shells?
(a) Snail
(b) Oyster
(c) Both snail & oyster
(d) Octopus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Octopus
Explanation: Octopuses are molluscs that do not have a shell. They have a soft body and a flexible, muscular mantle that allows them to squeeze through tight spaces and move quickly in the water. Octopuses are known for their ability and intelligence to change the color and texture to blend in with their surroundings.
(90). When a grain of salt or sand enters the body of an oyster, then the process of ________ formation begins around it.
(a) Liquid
(b) Body
(c) Pearl
(d) Baby
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Pearl
Explanation: When a grain of salt or sand enters the body of an oyster, the oyster may form a pearl around it as a defense mechanism.
(91). Echinoderms are ________.
(a) Vertebrates
(b) Invertebrates
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Invertebrates
Explanation: Echinoderms are invertebrates.
(92). Echinoderms are found only in the ________.
(a) Land
(b) Desert
(c) High mountains
(d) Ocean
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Ocean
Explanation: Echinoderms are exclusively found in marine environments.
(93). ________ do not have any head.
(a) Molluscs
(b) Worms
(c) Echinoderms
(d) Insects
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Echinoderms
Explanation: Echinoderms do not have a distinct head region.
(94). The body of ______ has a spiny covering.
(a) Molluscs
(b) Worms
(c) Echinoderms
(d) Insects
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Echinoderms
Explanation: Echinoderms have a spiny covering.
(95). Starfish, sea anemone, and brittle star are examples of _______.
(a) Molluscs
(b) Worms
(c) Echinoderms
(d) Insects
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Echinoderms
Explanation: These are all examples of echinoderms.
(96). The number of kinds of living things present at a particular place is called _____.
(a) Biology
(b) Bio creativity
(c) Biodiversity
(d) Bio degraded
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Biodiversity
Explanation: Biodiversity refers to the variety of life forms present in a particular place.
(97). The type of plants and animals no longer found in this world are called ____.
(a) Dead organisms
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Extinct
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Extinct
Explanation: Extinct species are those that no longer exist.
(98). Dinosaurs are a/an _________ animal.
(a) Dead organisms
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Extinct
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Extinct
Explanation:Dinosaurs are considered extinct animals because they no longer exist today. They went extinct approximately 65 million years ago, likely due to many factors, including a massive asteroid impact, volcanic activity, climate change, and possibly disease. These events disrupted ecosystems, leading to the collapse of food chains and the eventual extinction of most dinosaur species.
(99). Many organisms that are very likely to become extinct in the near future are called __________ organisms.
(a) Old
(b) Endangered
(c) Biodiversity
(d) Living
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Endangered
Explanation: Endangered species are those at risk of becoming extinct.
(100). Bengal tiger and panda are ________ animals.
(a) Dead organisms
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Extinct
(d) Endangered
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Endangered
Explanation: The Bengal tiger and panda are endangered species.
(101). Snow leopards, green turtles, hawks, Indus dolphins, and markhor are ________ animals in Pakistan.
(a) Dead organisms
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Extinct
(d) Endangered
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Endangered
Explanation: These are all examples of endangered animals in Pakistan.
(102). Indus Dolphin is ______.
(a) Blind
(b) Sharp eyes
(c) See up to 10 km
(d) See up to 10 m
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Blind
Explanation: The Indus Dolphin has poor eyesight and relies on echolocation to navigate.
(103). A large area of land where wild animals live safely is known as ________.
(a) Game reserve
(b) Game Park
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: Both terms are used to describe large areas set aside for wildlife conservation.
(104). Mangroves are small trees that grow in ________.
(a) Land
(b) Desert
(c) High mountain
(d) Coastal areas
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Coastal areas
Explanation: Mangroves are typically found in coastal areas, where they are adapted to saline conditions.
(105). Mangroves act as nurseries for ________ animals.
(a) Wild
(b) Domestic
(c) All
(d) Marine
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Marine
Explanation: Mangroves provide a safe habitat for marine animals, especially during their juvenile stages.
(106). By ________, the organisms can be saved from extinction.
(a) Hunting
(b) Conserving biodiversity
(c) Cutting forests
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Conserving biodiversity
Explanation: Conserving biodiversity involves protecting habitats and species, which can help prevent extinction.
(107). Which one of the following is the foot of an aquatic bird?
(a) Web
(b) Very large
(c) Very small
(d) Sharp
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Web
Explanation: The foot of an aquatic bird is webbed, meaning its toes are connected by a thin layer of skin, making it easier for them to swim. This webbing helps increase the surface area of their feet, allowing them to push more water and move through it with greater ease.
(108). The cat belongs to which group?
(a) Amphibians
(b) Reptiles
(c) Birds
(d) Mammals
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Mammals
Explanation: Cats are mammals.
(109). A fish respires through which organ?
(a) Gills
(b) Lungs
(c) Air sacs
(d) Skin
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Gills
Explanation: Fish typically respire through their gills, which extract oxygen from water.
(110). What is the number of cotyledons in a gram seed?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Two
Explanation: Gram seeds are dicots, meaning they have two cotyledons.
(111). Out of these, which group is found only in the ocean?
(a) Fish
(b) Insects
(c) Echinoderms
(d) Amphibians
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Echinoderms
Explanation: Echinoderms, like starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers, are found exclusively in marine environments.
Chapter # 2: Microorganisms
(1). All those tiny organisms that can only be seen under a microscope are called_______.(a) Macro organisms
(b) Microorganism
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Microorganism
Explanation: Microorganisms are organisms that are too small to be seen without a microscope.
(2). Special instruments used to see very tiny objects/organisms is called_____.
(a) Telescope
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Microscope
(d) Sitescope
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Microscope
Explanation: A microscope is an instrument used to view objects that are too small to be seen with the naked eye.
(3). Virus and Bacteria are the main groups of ________.
(a) Macro organisms
(b) Microorganism
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Microorganism
Explanation: Both viruses and bacteria are types of microorganisms.
(4). Viruses are tiny infectious particles.
(a) Good
(b) Tiny
(c) Large
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Tiny
Explanation: Viruses are indeed tiny, much smaller than bacteria.
(5). Viruses are the link between ________ things.
(a) Living
(b) Nonliving
(c) Both living and nonliving
(d) Dead
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both living and nonliving
Explanation: Viruses are a link between living and nonliving things. They can reproduce only within an organism. Out of the body of an organism, they are nonliving.
(a) Nonliving things
(b) Plants
(c) Animals
(d) Organism
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Organism
Explanation: Viruses need a host organism to reproduce.
(7). Viruses are living within a/an __________.
(a) Nonliving things
(b) Plants
(c) Animals
(d) Organism
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Organism
Explanation: Viruses are tiny particles that need a living thing, like a plant, animal, or bacteria, to survive and reproduce. They can’t live on their own. Once inside a living thing, they take over the cells to make more copies of themselves. So, viruses are found living inside organisms.
(8). Out of the body of an organism, viruses are _____________.
(a) Nonliving things
(b) Living
(c) Grow rapidly
(d) Reproduce
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Nonliving things
Explanation: Viruses are considered nonliving when outside of a host organism.
(9). Viruses cause diseases in ___________.
(a) Human beings
(b) Animals
(c) Plants
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Viruses can cause diseases in all types of living organisms.
(10). All viruses are__________.
(a) Useful
(b) Harmful
(c) Useful to plants
(d) Useful to animals
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Harmful
Explanation: While some viruses may have useful applications, many are harmful and cause diseases in their host organisms.
(11). Hepatitis, polio, flu, are caused due to __________.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Virus
Explanation: Hepatitis, polio, and flu are viral diseases.
(12). Bacteria are ________ organisms.
(a) Single-celled
(b) Double-celled
(c) Many-celled
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Single-celled
Explanation: Bacteria are unicellular microorganisms.
(13). Pneumonia, tuberculosis, and diarrhea are caused by________.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Bacteria
Explanation: These diseases are caused by bacterial infections.
(14). The bacteria which are beneficial for humans are called _______ bacteria.
(a) Useful
(b) Harmful
(c) Dangerous
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Useful
Explanation: Beneficial bacteria can be found in the human body and in various environments, performing important roles such as aiding digestion and fighting pathogens.
(15). The digestion and absorption of food components in our small intestine are due to _______.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food components in the small intestine.
(16). The number of harmful bacteria is very _________.
(a) High
(b) Less
(c) Infinite
(d) Dangerous
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Less
Explanation: While bacteria are ubiquitous, the number of harmful bacteria is relatively small compared to the total number of bacteria.
(17). What is the ratio of bacteria and cells in our body?
(a) Number of bacteria is more than the cells
(b) Number of cells is more than the bacteria
(c) Equal Number of bacteria and cells
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Number of bacteria is more than the cells
Explanation: There are more bacterial cells in the human body than human cells.
(18). The number of bacteria in a small spoon is almost______to the number of people living in the continent of Africa.
(a) Less
(b) Equal
(c) Greater
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Equal
Explanation: The number of bacteria in a small spoon can be comparable to the population of Africa, highlighting the abundance of bacteria.
(19). On the basis of shape, bacteria are divided into ________ shapes.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) No shapes
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: Bacteria can be classified into three main shapes: Round shaped, Rod shaped, and Spiral shaped.
(20). Bacteria has/have:
(a) Round
(b) Rod-shaped
(c) Spiral
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Bacteria can have a variety of shapes, including round, rod-shaped, and spiral, among others.
(21). __________ are simple organisms that are neither like plants nor like animals in their characteristics.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option:
(c) Fungi
Explanation: Fungi are distinct from both plants and animals and have their own unique characteristics.
(22). Fungi ________ make their own food.
(a) can
(b) cannot
(c) just eat
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) cannot
Explanation: Fungi are heterotrophic, meaning they cannot produce their own food and must obtain it from other sources.
(23). Fungi _______ dead matter into simple materials which are used as their food.
(a) Renew
(b) Decompose
(c) Rebirth
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Decompose
Explanation: Fungi are important decomposers, breaking down organic matter into simpler substances.
(24). Ringworm, athlete’s foot is caused by _______.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: These are fungal infections.
(25). Yeast and penicillin are examples of ________.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: Yeast is a type of fungus used in baking and brewing, while penicillin is an antibiotic derived from fungi.
(26). Mushroom is a type of _____________.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: Mushrooms are a type of fungus.
(27). Mold of an orange is due to __________.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: Mold is a type of fungus.
(28). The organisms which do decomposition are called________.
(a) New organisms
(b) Decomposers
(c) Finishers
(d) Creations
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Decomposers
Explanation: Decomposers are organisms that break down dead or decaying organisms.
(29). During decomposition, bacteria and fungi break the organic molecules of food and dead bodies into _________ components.
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Large
(d) Less
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Simple
Explanation: Decomposers break down complex organic molecules into simpler compounds.
(30). With an increase in temperature, humidity, and oxygen, the rate of decomposition __________.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Moderate
(d) Have no effect
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Increases
Explanation: The activity of decomposers increases with higher temperatures, humidity, and oxygen levels, leading to faster decomposition.
(31). In decomposition, carbon dioxide and nitrogen gases are released back into the __________.
(a) Living organisms
(b) Dead bodies
(c) Environment
(d) Decomposers
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Environment
Explanation: Decomposition releases gases back into the environment.
Diseases caused by Microorganisms (32). The microorganisms that cause disease in their hosts are called_________.
(a) Viral
(b) Bacterial
(c) Fungus
(d) Pathogens
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Pathogens
Explanation: Pathogens are disease-causing microorganisms.
(33). The diseases caused by Pathogen are called__________.
(a) Infections
(b) Infectious disease
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Infectious disease
Explanation: Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens.
(34). Hepatitis, Flu, Polio, COVID – 19, Measles, Mumps are caused by __________.
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Decomposers
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Viruses
Explanation: These diseases are caused by viruses.
(35). Pneumonia, Typhoid, Cholera, Tuberculosis are caused by __________.
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Decomposers
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Bacteria
Explanation: These diseases are caused by bacteria.
(36). Ringworm, Athlete’s foot, smut, rust caused by __________.
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Decomposers
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fungi
Explanation: These diseases are caused by fungi.
(37). Air, Water, Food, Animals, and Direct contact are the main ways for ________ of infectious diseases.
(a) Barrier
(b) Transmission
(c) Direct contact
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Transmission
Explanation: These are common modes of transmission for infectious diseases.
(38). The infectious disease that spread through air is called ________ disease.
(a) waterborne
(b) airborne
(c) Direct contact
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) airborne
Explanation: Airborne diseases are spread through the air.
(39). Diarrhea and typhoid are ________ diseases.
(a) waterborne
(b) airborne
(c) Direct contact
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) waterborne
Explanation: These diseases are transmitted through contaminated water.
(40). Covid-19 spreads through ________.
(a) waterborne
(b) airborne
(c) Direct contact
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Both (b) & (c)
Explanation: Airborne: When an infected person coughs, sneezes, talks, or breathes, tiny droplets containing the virus can float in the air. Others can breathe them in. Direct Contact: Some diseases are transmitted by shaking hands or by touching things used by the patient.
(41). ________ and Yeasts are used in making food items.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria and yeasts are used in making food items such as bread, cheese, and yogurt.
(42). _________ are used to make bread and cheese.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Yeast
(c) Virus
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Yeast
Explanation: Yeast is used to make bread and cheese.
(43). _________ are used in making yogurt.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Yeast
(c) Fungus
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Bacteria
Explanation: Certain types of bacteria are used in the fermentation process to make yogurt.
(44). ________ are used to decompose toxic material present in sewage and industrial wastewater.
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungus
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria are used to decompose toxic materials in sewage and industrial wastewater through a process called biodegradation, helping to clean and treat wastewater before it is released into the environment.
(45). Fungi and Bacteria are used to make _______.
(a) Toxic
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Apparatus
(d) Making food
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Antibiotics
Explanation: Antibiotics are made using certain fungi and bacteria.
(46). __________ was the first antibiotic.
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Cephalosporin
(c) Amino
(d) Penicillin
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Penicillin
Explanation: Penicillin was the first antibiotic discovered. Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928.
(47). Penicillin was originally derived from a type of fungus, known as __________.
(a) Fungus
(b) Penicillium
(c) Antibiotic
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Penicillium
Explanation: Penicillin was derived from the fungus Penicillium.
(48). Mushrooms belong to which group of organisms?
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Protozoa
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Fungi
Explanation: Mushrooms are a type of fungi.
(49). What is the cause of polio disease?
(a) Protozoa
(b) Virus
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Virus
Explanation: Polio is caused by a virus.
(50). Penicillin is an example of which group?
(a) Protozoa
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Fungi
Explanation: Penicillin is derived from a type of fungus.
(51). Food becomes contaminated due to the presence of _________ in the environment.
(a) Moisture
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Air
(d) Heat
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Microorganisms
Explanation: Contamination of food can occur due to the presence of microorganisms.
(52). Which of the following is not a microorganism?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Protozoa
(d) Ant
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Ant
Explanation: An ant is not a microorganism; it is an insect.
Chapter # 3: Flowers and Seeds
(1). The attractive part of the plant is ________.(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaves
(d) Flower
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Flower
Explanation: The flower is the attractive part of a plant that often contains reproductive structures.
(2). The stalk of the flower is called __________.
(a) Carpel
(b) Stamen
(c) Petal
(d) Pedicel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Pedicel
Explanation: The pedicel is the stalk of the flower that connects the flower to the stem.
(3). The flower has typically ________ parts at the pedicel.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Four
Explanation: The flower typically has four main parts at the pedicel: sepals, petals, stamens, and pistil.
(4). The first whorl of the flower is ________.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Sepals
Explanation: Sepals are the outermost whorl of the flower and are usually green, serving to protect the flower bud.
(5). The green leaflets of a flower are called ________.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Sepals
Explanation: Sepals are the green leaflets of a flower that protect the flower during its budding stage.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Sepals
Explanation: Sepals are leaf-like structures that protect the flower bud before it opens.
(7). The colored leaflets of a flower are called ________.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Petals
Explanation: Petals are the colored leaflets of a flower that attract pollinators.
(8). ________ form the second whorl of a flower.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Petals
Explanation: The second whorl of a flower is typically composed of petals.
(9). ________ attracts insects and birds towards the flower.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Petals
Explanation: Petals, often brightly colored, attract insects and birds to the flower for pollination.
(10). ________ is the third whorl of the flower.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Stamen
Explanation: The stamen is the male reproductive organ of a flower, typically the third whorl in floral arrangement.
(11). ________ consists of anther and filament.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Stamen
Explanation: The stamen consists of the anther, which produces pollen, and the filament, which supports the anther.
(12). The male reproductive part of the flower is ________.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Stamen
Explanation: The stamen is the male reproductive part of the flower, consisting of the anther and the filament.
(13). ________ is a round or oval sac-shaped structure.
(a) Anther
(b) Filament
(c) Stigma
(d) Style
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Anther
Explanation: The anther is the round or oval sac-shaped structure where pollen grains are produced.
(14). Pollen grains are formed on ________.
(a) Anther
(b) Filament
(c) Stigma
(d) Style
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Anther
Explanation: Pollen grains are formed on the anther, which is part of the stamen.
(15). ________ is a long stalk-shaped structure.
(a) Anther
(b) Filament
(c) Stigma
(d) Style
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Filament
Explanation: The filament is the long stalk-shaped structure that supports the anther.
(16). ________ supports the anther.
(a) Anther
(b) Filament
(c) Stigma
(d) Style
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Filament
Explanation: The filament supports the anther, where pollen grains are produced.
(17). ________ makes the fourth whorl in the flower.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Carpel
Explanation: The carpel, also known as the pistil, is the fourth whorl in the flower, consisting of the stigma, style, and ovary.
(18). ________ consists of stigma, style, and ovary.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Carpel
Explanation: The carpel, or pistil, consists of the stigma, style, and ovary, and is the female reproductive part of the flower.
(19). The female sexual reproductive part of the flower is ________.
(a) Sepals
(b) Petals
(c) Stamen
(d) Carpel
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Carpel
Explanation: The carpel, or pistil, is the female reproductive part of the flower, which includes the stigma, style, and ovary.
(20). Carpel consists of ________ parts.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: The carpel, or pistil, consists of the stigma, style, and ovary. These parts work together to facilitate fertilization and seed production in flowering plants.
(21). ________ is the bottle-shaped part of the carpel.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Stigma
Explanation: The stigma is the bottle-shaped part of the carpel, located at the top of the style. It is the female reproductive organ of the flower that receives pollen during pollination. The stigma is usually sticky or hairy to help trap pollen grains. Once pollen grains land on the stigma, they germinate and grow pollen tubes, which transport the male gametes (sperm) to the ovules (eggs) located in the ovary.
(22). Pollen grains adhere to ________ and germinate to form the pollen tube.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Stigma
Explanation: After pollination, pollen grains adhere to the stigma of the carpel, where they germinate to form the pollen tube.
(23). ________ is the neck-shaped part of the carpel, which is below the stigma.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Style
Explanation: The style is the neck-shaped part of the carpel, located below the stigma and connecting it to the ovary.
(24). The pollen tube passes through the ________.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Style
Explanation: The pollen tube grows through the style, reaching the ovary, where it fertilizes the ovules.
(25). ________ is the oval-shaped part of the carpel, which is below the style.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Ovary
Explanation: The ovary is the oval-shaped part of the carpel that contains the ovules, which develop into seeds after fertilization.
(26). Ovules are present in ________.
(a) Stigma
(b) Style
(c) Ovary
(d) Sepal
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Ovary
Explanation: Ovules are present in the ovary of the flower, where they develop into seeds after fertilization.
(27). The process in which pollen grains are transformed from the anther of the flower to the stigma of the flower is called ________.
(a) Germination
(b) Pollination
(c) Fertilization
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Pollination
Explanation: Pollination is the process in which pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower.
(28). There are ________ types of pollination. Self-pollination, cross pollination.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Two
Explanation: There are two main types of pollination: self-pollination, where pollen is transferred within the same flower or between flowers of the same plant, and cross-pollination, where pollen is transferred between flowers of different plants.
(29). If the pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or the stigma of the other flower of the same plant, it is called ________.
(a) Self-Pollination
(b) Cross pollination
(c) Over pollination
(d) No pollination
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Self-Pollination
Explanation: Self-pollination occurs when the pollen grains are transferred from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the same flower or the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
(30). ________ takes place in pea, cotton, tomato etc.
(a) Self-Pollination
(b) Cross pollination
(c) Over pollination
(d) No pollination
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Self-Pollination
Explanation: Self-pollination occurs in plants like pea, cotton, and tomato, where the flowers are designed to ensure that their own pollen fertilizes their ovules.
(31). If the pollen grains are transferred from the flower of one plant to the stigma of the flower of another plant (of the same type) it is called ________.
(a) Self-Pollination
(b) Cross pollination
(c) Over pollination
(d) No pollination
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Cross pollination
Explanation: Cross-pollination occurs when pollen is transferred from the flower of one plant to the stigma of the flower of another plant of the same species.
(32). ________ takes place in maize, papaya, rose etc.
(a) Self-Pollination
(b) Cross pollination
(c) Over pollination
(d) No pollination
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Cross pollination
Explanation: Cross-pollination occurs in plants like maize, papaya, and rose, where the flowers are designed to encourage the transfer of pollen between different plants of the same species.
(33). ________ takes place through insects, air, bats, and water.
(a) Germination
(b) Pollination
(c) Fertilization
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Pollination
Explanation: Pollination occurs through various agents such as insects, air, bats, and water, which help transfer pollen from the anther to the stigma of flowers.
(34). China rose has ______ carpel in a flower.
(a) One
(b) More than one
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) More than one
Explanation: The China rose (Hibiscus) has multiple carpels that are fused together to form a single pistil. Each carpel contains an ovary, style, and stigma, but they are united into one structure in the flower. Thus, the flower has more than one carpel.
(35). The main difference between living and non-living things is the ability of ________.
(a) Production
(b) Reproduction
(c) Generation
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Reproduction
Explanation: The main difference between living and non-living things is the ability of living things to reproduce and produce offspring of their own kind.
(36). The lifespan of living things is ________.
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Excessive
(d) Very less
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Limited
Explanation: The lifespan of living things is limited, as they undergo a life cycle that includes birth, growth, reproduction, and death.
(37). ________ things produce new organisms of their kind.
(a) Non-living
(b) Living
(c) Both living & nonliving
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Living
Explanation: Living things, not non-living things, produce new organisms of their kind through reproduction.
(38). There are ________ types of reproduction in plants.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Two
Explanation: There are two main types of reproduction in plants: sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.
(39). In Asexual reproduction _______ plant produces new plants.
(a) Only one
(b) More than one
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Only one
Explanation: In asexual reproduction, a single parent plant produces new plants that are genetically identical to the parent plant.
(40). In asexual reproduction ________ do not take any part.
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Flower
(d) Leaves
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Flower
Explanation: In asexual reproduction, flowers do not take any part, as it usually involves vegetative propagation, where new plants are produced from stems, leaves, or roots.
(a) Stem
(b) Roots
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Flowers
Explanation: Flowers do not take part in asexual reproduction, which typically involves vegetative propagation through stems, roots, or leaves.
(42). The plant produced from asexual reproduction have a ________ with the parent plant.
(a) Great Similarity
(b) Great difference
(c) Less similarity
(d) No similarity
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Great Similarity
Explanation: Plants produced through asexual reproduction usually have a great similarity to the parent plant, as they are genetically identical.
(43). When branches of shrubs become buried in the soil is called _________.
(a) Layer
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Layer
Explanation: When branches of shrubs become buried in the soil and produce roots, it is called layering.
(44). When branches of shrubs buried in the soil and produce new roots then cut and separated from the plant and develops into a new plant is called _______.
(a) Layering
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Layering
Explanation: When branches of shrubs are buried in the soil, produce new roots, and are later cut and separated to develop into new plants, it is called layering.
(45). Layering is done______.
(a) Naturally
(b) Artificially
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: Layering can occur naturally, where branches of shrubs produce roots, or it can be done artificially by gardeners to propagate plants.
(46). Breeding of lemon, jasmine, lychee is done by _______.
(a) Layering
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Layering
Explanation: Lemon, jasmine, and lychee can be bred through layering, where branches are buried to produce roots and then cut to develop into new plants.
(47). _______ is the underground thick stem of plant.
(a) Layering
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Tuber
Explanation: A tuber is an underground thick stem of a plant, such as a potato, which stores food and nutrients.
(48). The example of _______ is potato.
(a) Layering
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Tuber
Explanation: The potato is an example of a tuber, which is an underground thick stem of a plant that stores food and nutrients.
(49). The eyes on _______ are buds.
(a) Layering
(b) Bulb
(c) Tuber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Tuber
Explanation: The eyes on tubers like potatoes are actually buds, which can grow into new plants under suitable conditions.
(50). When the piece of potato having eyes are buried in the ground, ______ develop from them.
(a) New Plants
(b) No Plants
(c) Just vanish
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) New Plants
Explanation: When a piece of potato with eyes (buds) is buried in the ground, new plants can develop from them, as the buds grow into new shoots and roots.
(51). Sexual reproduction takes place through _______.
(a) Roots
(b) Stem
(c) Flower
(d) Leaves
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Flower
Explanation: Sexual reproduction typically involves the reproductive organs of a plant, which are found in the flower.
(52). In sexual reproduction, male gametes are formed into the _______.
(a) Pollen tube
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Pollen tube
Explanation: Male gametes, which are contained within pollen grains, are carried to the ovule by the pollen tube during sexual reproduction.
(53). In sexual reproduction, female gametes are formed in the _______.
(a) Pollen tube
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Ovule
Explanation: Female gametes are contained within the ovule, which is located within the ovary of a flower.
(54). In sexual reproduction, male and female gametes fuse to form a _______.
(a) Pollen tube
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Zygote
Explanation: The fusion of male and female gametes during sexual reproduction forms a zygote, which develops into an embryo.
(55). In sexual reproduction, the zygote divides many times to form the _______.
(a) Pollen tube
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Embryo
Explanation: The zygote undergoes multiple cell divisions to form an embryo during sexual reproduction.
(a) Pollen tube
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Ovule
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovule develops into a seed, containing the embryo and endosperm.
(57). The ovule becomes _______.
(a) Fruit
(b) Seed
(c) Flower
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Seed
Explanation: The ovule develops into a seed after fertilization, containing the embryo and endosperm.
(58). _______ ripens to form the Fruit.
(a) Ovary
(b) Ovule
(c) Zygote
(d) Embryo
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Ovary
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovary ripens to form the fruit, which encloses the seeds.
(59). Sexual reproduction involves _______ parents.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than two
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Two
Explanation: Sexual reproduction involves two parents, a male and a female, contributing genetic material to the offspring.
(60). In _______ reproduction, male and female gametes fuse to form new plant.
(a) Asexual
(b) Sexual
(c) Layering
(d) Tuber
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Sexual
Explanation: In sexual reproduction, male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote, which develops into a new plant.
(61). Asexual reproduction _______ parent.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than two
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) One
Explanation: Asexual reproduction typically involves a single parent organism.
(62). In asexual reproduction, there is _______ fusion of male and female gametes.
(a) No
(b) Many
(c) One
(d) Two
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) No
Explanation: In asexual reproduction, there is no fusion of male and female gametes. Instead, the offspring are produced from a single parent organism, and they inherit all of their genetic material from that parent. Asexual reproduction typically involves mechanisms such as binary fission, budding, or fragmentation, where the parent organism produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself.
(63). In _______ reproduction, new plants completely resemble to their parent.
(a) Asexual
(b) Sexual
(c) Germination
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Asexual
Explanation: In asexual reproduction, the offspring are genetically identical to the parent, resulting in offspring that resemble the parent plant.
(64). Sexual reproduction is _______ process.
(a) Slow
(b) Quick
(c) Instant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Slow
Explanation: Sexual reproduction typically involves multiple steps, including pollination, fertilization, and seed development, which can be a slow process.
(65). Asexual reproduction is a _______ process.
(a) Slow
(b) Quick
(c) Instant
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Quick
Explanation: Asexual reproduction can be a relatively quick process, as it does not involve the complex steps of pollination, fertilization, and seed development seen in sexual reproduction.
(66). The outer covering of seed is called _______.
(a) Embryo
(b) Seed coat
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Seed coat
Explanation: The seed coat is the outer covering of a seed that protects the embryo and endosperm.
(67). Seed coat is also called _______.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Testa
Explanation: The seed coat is also known as the testa.
(68). _______ protects the tiny embryo which is present inside the seed.
(a) Plumule
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Testa
Explanation: The testa, or seed coat, protects the tiny embryo inside the seed.
(69). _______ is present inside the seed.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Embryo
Explanation: The embryo is the developing plant inside the seed.
(70). There is a pore on seed coat, which is called _______.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Micropyle
Explanation: The micropyle is a small pore in the seed coat that allows water and gases to enter the seed during germination.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Embryo
Explanation: The embryo consists of cotyledons, which are the first leaves of the plant.
(72). Cotyledons ________ food.
(a) Store
(b) does not store
(c) just eat
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Store
Explanation: Cotyledons store food for the developing plant until it can produce its own through photosynthesis.
(73). When seed germinates, its _______ forms roots.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Radicle
Explanation: The radicle, which is part of the embryo, is the first structure to emerge from the seed during germination and forms the primary root of the plant.
(74). After seed germination, _______ gives rise to shoot.
(a) Plumule
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Plumule
Explanation: The plumule, which is part of the embryo, gives rise to the shoot system of the plant.
(75). The process in which a seeding comes out of the embryo of the seed is called _______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Reproduction
(c) Germination
(d) Cycle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Germination
Explanation: Germination is the process by which a seedling emerges from the seed and begins to grow.
(76). During germination, seed absorbs water through its _______.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Micropyle
(d) Radicle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Micropyle
Explanation: The micropyle, which is a small pore in the seed coat, allows water to enter the seed during germination.
(77). The cotyledons of seed provide food to _______.
(a) Radicle
(b) Plumule
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both a & b
Explanation: Cotyledons provide stored food to both the radicle and plumule during germination.
(78). The cotyledons form the first _______ of seed.
(a) Embryo
(b) Testa
(c) Leaflets
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Leaflets
Explanation: The cotyledons are the first leaves of the plant, and they emerge from the seed during germination.
(79). Maize is a _______ plant.
(a) Monocot
(b) Dicot
(c) Tricot
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Monocot
Explanation: Maize is a monocotyledonous plant, which means that it has one cotyledon in its seed.
(80). Endosperm is ________ in gram seed.
(a) Present
(b) Absent
(c) Many
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Absent
Explanation: In gram seeds (which are dicots), the food reserve is stored in the cotyledons rather than in the endosperm. The endosperm is absent in mature gram seeds because it is consumed during seed development.
(81). Gram is _______ plant.
(a) Monocot
(b) Dicot
(c) Tricot
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Dicot
Explanation: Gram is a dicotyledonous plant, which means that it has two cotyledons in its seed.
(82). Endosperm is _______ in Maize seeds.
(a) Present
(b) Absent
(c) Many
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Present
Explanation: In maize (corn) seeds, the endosperm is present and plays a vital role in storing nutrients for the developing embryo.
(83). Embryo is present at _______ side in gram seed.
(a) Center
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Center
Explanation: In a gram seed (which is a dicot seed), the embryo is located in the center, surrounded by the two large cotyledons that store food.
(84). Embryo is present at _______ side in maize seed.
(a) Center
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) One
Explanation: In a maize seed (which is a monocot seed), the embryo is located on one side, next to the endosperm, which provides nourishment during germination.
(85). For seed _______ the environment conditions are water, air and suitable temperature.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Reproduction
(c) Germination
(d) Cycle
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Germination
Explanation: Germination is the process by which a seedling emerges from the seed and begins to grow, and it requires water, air, and a suitable temperature.
(86). The given figure is of Dicot seed. Which statement is correct about it?
(a) Endosperm is present which stores food
(b) There is no role of cotyledon in storing food
(c) Cotyledon stores food for embryo
(d) Cotyledon appears in the form of protective cap
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Cotyledon stores food for embryo
Explanation: In a dicot seed, the cotyledons store food for the developing embryo.
(87). The given picture of a flower, which are the female reproductive parts of the flower?
(a)
(b) B,C and D
(c)
(d)
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) B,C and D
Explanation: The female reproductive parts of a flower are the pistil (carpel), stigma, style, and ovary.
(88). The gram seed is covered by which structure?
(a) Cotyledon
(b) Seed coat
(c) Plumule
(d) Endosperm
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Seed coat
Explanation: The seed coat is the outer covering of a seed, and it protects the seed from damage and dehydration.
(89). Which conditions are necessary for seed germination?
(a) Water, soil and air, darkness
(b) Air, water, light
(c) Water, temperature, air
(d) Temperature, soil, light
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Water, temperature, air
Explanation: Seed germination requires water, a suitable temperature, and oxygen (air).
(90). Which type of pollination is must for Papaya?
(a) Self-pollination
(b) Cross pollination
(c) Both type of pollination
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Cross pollination
Explanation: Papaya requires cross-pollination, which means that pollen from one flower must be transferred to the stigma of another flower on a different plant for successful pollination and fruit production.
Chapter # 4: Environmental Pollution
(1). The particular place where an organism lives is called its _______.(a) Land
(b) Forest
(c) Desert
(d) Environment
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Environment
Explanation: The term “environment” refers to the surroundings or conditions in which an organism lives or operates.
(2). Any change in the environment which is harmful for living thing is called environmental _______.
(a) Benefits
(b) Potential
(c) Disease
(d) Pollution
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Pollution
Explanation: Environmental pollution refers to the introduction of harmful substances or pollutants into the environment that cause adverse effects to living organisms.
(3). The substances that cause pollution are called _______.
(a) Microbes
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Pollutants
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Pollutants
Explanation: Pollutants are substances that cause pollution by contaminating the environment.
(4). What are the main types of environmental pollution?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: The three main types of environmental pollution are air pollution, water pollution, and land pollution.
(5). The poisonous substances emitting from the chimney of the factories and smoke after dissolving in rain water produces _______ rain.
(a) Fine
(b) Good
(c) A lot of
(d) Acid
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Acid
Explanation: Acid rain is caused by the release of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere, which then react with water vapor to form sulfuric acid and nitric acid. This acidic precipitation can harm the environment and living organisms.
(a) Smoke
(b) Smog
(c) Fresh air
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Smog
Explanation: Smog is a type of air pollution that forms when pollutant gases, such as nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds, react in the atmosphere in the presence of sunlight to form harmful chemicals and particulate matter.
(7). The invisibility in winter is due to _______.
(a) Smoke
(b) Smog
(c) Fresh air
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Smog
Explanation: Smog is a type of air pollution that forms when pollutants like nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds mix with sunlight. In winter, cold air traps these pollutants near the ground (a phenomenon called temperature inversion), leading to reduced visibility due to smog.
(8). Greenhouse is a house made of _______ material.
(a) Opaque
(b) Old
(c) Transparent
(d) Garbage
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Transparent
Explanation: A greenhouse is typically made of transparent material, such as glass or plastic, to allow sunlight to enter and warm the interior while trapping heat inside.
(9). In greenhouse:
(a) Clean the water
(b) Make the process for rain
(c) Disposing of garbage
(d) Vegetables and flowers are grown
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Vegetables and flowers are grown
Explanation: Greenhouses are used for growing plants, particularly in colder climates or during certain seasons, to provide a controlled environment for optimal growth.
(10). The greenhouse is _______ inside even in winter season.
(a) Cold
(b) Hooter
(c) Hot
(d) Very cold
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Hot
Explanation: The greenhouse effect allows sunlight to enter the greenhouse and warm the interior, creating a warmer environment compared to the outside temperature, even during winter.
(11). Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen oxide, etc. are called _______ gases.
(a) Polluted
(b) Fresh
(c) Greenhouse
(d) Warm
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Greenhouse
Explanation: These gases, known as greenhouse gases, absorb and emit heat, contributing to the greenhouse effect and influencing Earth’s climate.
(12). The greenhouses gases allow the sunlight to reach the Earth, but does not allow leaving the heat of the Earth, this process is called _______ effect.
(a) Global warming
(b) Greenhouse
(c) Natural
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Greenhouse
Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a natural process where certain gases in the Earth’s atmosphere trap heat, allowing sunlight to enter and warm the Earth’s surface while preventing some of the heat from escaping back into space.
(13). _______ gases are considered fossil fuel.
(a) Coal
(b) Crude oil
(c) Natural gases
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Coal, crude oil, and natural gases are all considered fossil fuels as they are formed from the buried remains of plants and animals over millions of years.
(14). _______ were formed from the buried remains of plants and animals.
(a) Greenhouse
(b) Water
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Fossil fuel
Explanation: Fossil fuels, such as coal, crude oil, and natural gases, were formed from the buried remains of plants and animals over millions of years.
(15). The increase in the average temperature of the Earth is called _______ warming.
(a) Global
(b) Greenhouse
(c) Natural
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Global
Explanation: Global warming refers to the increase in the average temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere and oceans, primarily due to the greenhouse effect caused by increased levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
(16). From _______ the Government of Pakistan has taken an initiative of “Billions Tree Plantation” across the country.
(a) 2010
(b) 2018
(c) 2023
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) 2018
Explanation: The Government of Pakistan initiated the “Billion Tree Tsunami Afforestation Project” in 2018 with the goal of planting one billion trees across the country to combat deforestation and climate change.
(17). Such matters which become part of the soil after broken down by natural process into simple substances are called _______ materials. (Meat, paper, etc).
(a) Biodegradable
(b) Non-biodegradable
(c) Artificial
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Biodegradable
Explanation: Biodegradable materials are those that can be broken down by natural processes into simpler substances and become part of the soil. Examples include organic matter like food waste, leaves, and paper.
(18). The matter that could not break down into simple substances by natural process is called _______ materials.
(a) Biodegradable
(b) Non-biodegradable
(c) Artificial
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Non-biodegradable
Explanation: Non-biodegradable materials are those that cannot be broken down by natural processes into simpler substances. Examples include plastic, metals, and glass.
(19). To reduce pollution of non-biodegradable things the principle of _______ is applied.
(a) 3R
(b) 4R
(c) 5R
(d) 6R
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) 4R
Explanation: The 4R commonly used are as follows:
These principles are aimed at reducing waste and conserving resources, and they can be applied by individuals and organizations to help protect the environment.
(20). Which disease is caused due to air pollution?
(a) Diarrhea
(b) Typhoid
(c) Lung’s cancer
(d) Cholera
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Lung’s cancer
Explanation: Air pollution can contribute to lung cancer and other respiratory diseases due to the inhalation of pollutants such as particulate matter, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, and volatile organic compounds.
(21). The germs present in it caused typhoid;
(a) Sewerage water
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Factory waste
(d) Insecticides
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Sewerage water
Explanation: Sewerage water can contain harmful pathogens that cause diseases like typhoid when ingested or come into contact with open wounds or mucous membranes.
(22). Which one of these is non-biodegradable?
(a) Feathers
(b) Paper
(c) Leaves of plants
(d) Polythene bag
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Polythene bag
Explanation: Polythene bags are non-biodegradable as they are made of synthetic polymers that do not break down easily in the environment.
(23). Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Methane
(c) Ozone
(d) Carbon dioxide
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen is not considered a greenhouse gas. Greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and ozone (O3), among others.
(24). Which one of the following acts causes most of the air pollution?
(a) Collecting rubber
(b) Burning rubber
(c) Reusing rubber
(d) Recycling
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Burning rubber
Explanation: Burning rubber, such as in the form of tire fires or the incineration of rubber products, releases harmful pollutants into the air and contributes to air pollution.
Chapter # 5: Physical and Chemical Changes of Matter
(1). Anything that has mass and occupies space is called _______.(a) Energy
(b) Matter
(c) Solid
(d) Liquid
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Matter
Explanation: Matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space.
(2). There are ______ states of matter.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Three
Explanation: There are three types of matter: solid, liquid, and gas.
(3). The change, in which only appearances of a matter changes, but chemical composition remains the same is called _______ change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Physical
Explanation: A physical change is a change in the form or appearance of matter, but not in its chemical composition. For example, melting, freezing, and boiling are physical changes.
(4). The dissolving of salt in water is a _______ change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Physical
Explanation: Dissolving salt in water is a physical change because it does not change the chemical composition of the salt or water.
(5). Physical state can be _______.
(a) Reversed
(b) Not reversed
(c) Finish
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Reversed
Explanation: Physical states of matter (solid, liquid, gas) can be reversed through physical changes such as melting, freezing, and evaporating.
(a) Melting
(b) Freezing
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Melting
Explanation: Melting is the process of changing a solid into a liquid by heating it until it reaches its melting point.
(7). When solid is heated, solid changed into _______
(a) Liquid
(b) Gas
(c) Plasma
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Liquid
Explanation: When a solid is heated, it changes into a liquid through the process of melting.
(8). The process in which heat is lost from liquid, the force of attraction between the particles becomes stronger, and thus liquid changed into solid, this process is called _______.
(a) Melting
(b) Freezing
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Freezing
Explanation: Freezing is the process of changing a liquid into a solid by cooling it until it reaches its freezing point.
(9). When a liquid is heated continuously then particles move faster and the space between the particles increases, due to this the liquid is changed to vapors or gas, this process is called _______.
(a) Boiling
(b) Freezing
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Boiling
Explanation: Boiling is the process of changing a liquid into a gas by heating it until it reaches its boiling point.
(10). The change of water into water vapor is called _______.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Evaporation
Explanation: Evaporation is the process of changing a liquid into a gas by heating it until it reaches its boiling point.
(11). When water vapors present in air convert into liquid (water) on cooling, the process is called _______.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Condensation
Explanation: Condensation is the process of changing a gas into a liquid by cooling it until it reaches its condensation point.
(12). Wet clothes are dried due to _______.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Evaporation
Explanation: Wet clothes dry due to the process of evaporation, where water molecules in the clothes absorb heat from the surroundings and change into water vapor, which then escapes into the air.
(13). The process of _______ can take place at any temperature.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Evaporation
Explanation: Evaporation is the process of changing a liquid into a gas at any temperature, as long as the liquid is exposed to air.
(14). At high temperature the process of _______ becomes rapid.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Evaporation
Explanation: At high temperatures, the process of evaporation becomes more rapid because the heat energy increases the kinetic energy of the molecules, causing them to move faster and escape from the liquid.
(15). When our sweat dries up, we feel cold owing to the process of _______.
(a) Distillation
(b) Filtration
(c) Evaporation
(d) Condensation
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Evaporation
Explanation: When sweat evaporates from our skin, it absorbs heat from our body, which cools us down and gives us a sensation of coldness.
(16). Two or more substances mixed together in any proportion form a _______.
(a) Mixture
(b) Compound
(c) Atom
(d) Element
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Mixture
Explanation: A mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically combined and can be separated by physical means.
(17). In a mixture, constituent substances _______ their original properties.
(a) Retain
(b) Do not retain
(c) Finish
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Retain
Explanation: In a mixture, the constituent substances retain their original properties and can be separated by physical methods.
(18). Mixture can be homogenous or heterogeneous.
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation: A mixture can be homogeneous (uniform composition throughout) or heterogeneous (non-uniform composition).
(19). Most homogeneous mixtures are also known as _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solutions
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Solutions
Explanation: Most homogeneous mixtures are solutions, where one substance (solvent) dissolves another substance (solute) to form a uniform mixture.
(20). Air is an example of _______ mixture.
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Solute
(d) Solvent
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Homogeneous
Explanation: Air is a homogeneous mixture of gases, meaning it has a uniform composition throughout.
(21). Metal alloys are the example of _______ mixture.
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Solute
(d) Solvent
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Homogeneous
Explanation: Metal alloys like brass, bronze, and steel are homogeneous mixtures where the metal atoms are evenly distributed throughout the mixture.
(22). A _______ mixture can be separated by physical methods.
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Solute
(d) Solvent
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Heterogeneous
Explanation: Heterogeneous mixtures can be separated by physical methods because their components are not evenly distributed throughout the mixture.
(23). Soil is an example of _______ mixture.
(a) Homogeneous
(b) Heterogeneous
(c) Solute
(d) Solvent
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Heterogeneous
Explanation: Soil is a heterogeneous mixture of organic matter, minerals, water, and air, where the components are not uniformly distributed.
(24). When solid or liquid things are put into water and its particles dissolve uniformly to form a mixture called _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solution
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Solution
Explanation: A solution is formed when a solute (solid or liquid) is dissolved in a solvent (usually a liquid) to form a homogeneous mixture.
(25). There are _______ main components of a solution.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Two
Explanation: Solutions have two main components: solute (the substance being dissolved) and solvent (the substance doing the dissolving).
(26). In a solution, the substance that dissolves in a liquid and is in less quantity is called a _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solution
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Solute
Explanation: The solute is the substance that dissolves in the solvent and is usually present in smaller amounts in a solution.
(27). In a solution, the substance that dissolves a solute and is in more quantity is called a _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solution
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Solvent
Explanation: The solvent is the substance that dissolves a solute and is usually present in larger amounts in a solution.
(28). When salt is dissolved in water, the salt is _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solution
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Solute
Explanation: In a saltwater solution, salt is the solute, and water is the solvent.
(29). When salt is dissolved in water, the water is _______.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solution
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Solvent
Explanation: In a saltwater solution, water is the solvent, as it dissolves the salt (solute).
(30). The rate of dissolving salt in water can be increased by:
(a) Stirring
(b) Increasing temperature
(c) Decreasing the size of particles
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Stirring increases the surface area for contact, increasing temperature speeds up the process, and decreasing the size of particles exposes more surface area for dissolving.
(31). The dissolution of any solute _______ on the size of particles.
(a) depends
(b) does not depend
(c) depend on solvent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) depends
Explanation: The dissolution rate of a solute depends on the size of its particles. Smaller particles dissolve faster because they have a larger surface area for contact with the solvent.
(32). Drinks such as milk, tea, and soft drinks are all________.
(a) Solute
(b) Solvent
(c) Solutions
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Solutions
Explanation: Milk, tea, and soft drinks are all examples of solutions, where a solute (sugar, flavorings, etc.) is dissolved in a solvent (water).
(33). A solution having a minor quantity of solute is called _______ solution.
(a) Dilute
(b) Concentrated
(c) Chemical
(d) Physical
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Dilute
Explanation: A dilute solution contains a small amount of solute relative to the amount of solvent.
(34). A solution having a major quantity of solute is called _______ solution.
(a) Dilute
(b) Concentrated
(c) Chemical
(d) Physical
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Concentrated
Explanation: A concentrated solution contains a large amount of solute relative to the amount of solvent.
(35). The change in which both appearance and composition of a substance or matter changes are called _______ change.
(a) Dilute
(b) Concentrated
(c) Chemical
(d) Physical
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Chemical
Explanation: A chemical change involves a change in the chemical composition of a substance, leading to the formation of new substances with different properties.
(36). The remains of dead organisms and waste matters disappear gradually through _______.
(a) Respiration
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decomposition
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Decomposition
Explanation: Decomposition is the process where dead organisms and waste materials are broken down into simpler substances by bacteria and fungi.
(37). The process in which bacteria and fungi decompose dead bodies into simple components is called _______.
(a) Respiration
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decaying
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Decaying
Explanation: Decaying is the process by which bacteria and fungi break down dead bodies into simpler components.
(38). The _______ develops during the combustion reaction.
(a) Respiration
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decomposition
(d) Flame
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Flame
Explanation: A flame develops during the combustion reaction, which is a chemical reaction between a fuel and an oxidizing agent (usually oxygen) that produces heat, light, and new substances.
(39). When the flame develops during the combustion reaction, then it is called _______.
(a) Respiration
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decomposition
(d) Burning
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Burning
Explanation: Burning is the process where a substance reacts with oxygen to produce heat, light, and new substances.
(40). The change that occurs on the iron due to the action of oxygen and water is called _______.
(a) Rusting
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decomposition
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Rusting
Explanation: Rusting is a chemical reaction between iron, oxygen, and water, leading to the formation of iron oxide (rust) on the surface of iron objects.
(41). Iron + Oxygen + Water = _______
(a) Steel
(b) Aluminum
(c) Rusting
(d) Gold
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Rusting
Explanation: The reaction of iron with oxygen in the presence of water or moisture leads to the formation of iron oxide, commonly known as rust.
(42). To prevent iron from _______, its surface is painted with oil or chromium.
(a) Rusting
(b) Reproduction
(c) Decomposition
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Rusting
Explanation: Painting iron surfaces with oil or chromium helps prevent rusting by forming a protective barrier that prevents oxygen and moisture from coming into contact with the iron surface.
(43). A change in which no new material is formed with different properties then such change is called a _______ change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Physical
Explanation: In a physical change, no new substances are formed, and the chemical composition of the matter remains the same.
(44). A change which results into a totally new material is called _______ change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Melting
(d) Freezing
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Chemical
Explanation: In a chemical change, new substances are formed with different properties compared to the original substances.
(45). _______ change can be reversed.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Decomposition
(d) Decaying
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Physical
Explanation: Physical changes can often be reversed by changing the conditions (e.g., heating or cooling), and the original substance can be recovered.
(46). The _______ change cannot be reversed.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Decomposition
(d) Decaying
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Chemical
Explanation: Chemical changes are usually irreversible because they result in the formation of new substances with different chemical properties.
(47). Burning of paper is a _______ change.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Decomposition
(d) Decaying
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Chemical
Explanation: Burning of paper involves a chemical reaction between paper and oxygen, leading to the formation of new substances like carbon dioxide and water vapor.
(48). The change of milk into yogurt is a:
(a) Physical change
(b) Climate change
(c) Chemical change
(d) Change of color
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Chemical change
Explanation: The process of milk turning into yogurt involves the fermentation of lactose (milk sugar) by bacteria, resulting in the formation of lactic acid and the coagulation of milk proteins.
(49). Why did a person paint his iron gate?
(a) To save from rusting
(b) To save from sunlight
(c) To make it beautiful
(d) To save from water
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) To save from rusting
Explanation: Painting an iron gate forms a protective layer that prevents direct contact between oxygen and moisture in the air and the iron surface, thereby preventing rusting.
(50). Which of the following will NOT affect the dissolving of sugar in water?
(a) To add salt in water
(b) To make sugar powdered by grinding
(c) To heat water and sugar
(d) To stir water and sugar
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) To add salt in water
Explanation: Adding salt to water will not affect the dissolving of sugar in water because salt and sugar are different substances with different properties, and their solubilities in water are not affected by each other.
(51). Which one is NOT a chemical change?
(a) Seed germination
(b) Making paper boat
(c) Burning of wood
(d) Cooking food
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Making paper boat
Explanation: Making a paper boat involves a physical change where the shape and appearance of the paper change, but no new substances are formed.
(52). What type of change is it when metal expands on heating?
(a) Permanent
(b) Chemical
(c) Physical
(d) Irreversible
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Physical
Explanation: The expansion of metal on heating is a physical change because the substance remains the same, and no new substances are formed.
Chapter # 6: Light and Sound
(1). Our day starts with the rising of the _______.(a) Moon
(b) Star
(c) Sun
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) Sun
Explanation: Our day starts with the rising of the Sun in the morning. The Sun is the primary source of light and energy for Earth.
(2). Sun and stars are the _______ sources of light.
(a) Artificial
(b) Natural
(c) No
(d) All are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Natural
Explanation: Sun and stars are natural sources of light. Artificial sources of light include light bulbs, LED lights, and fluorescent lights.
(3). Light is a form of _______.
(a) Matter
(b) Energy
(c) Moon
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Energy
Explanation: Light is a form of energy that travels in waves. It is part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(4). The plants prepare their food:
(a) from other organisms
(b) nutrients from air
(c) using sunlight
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) using sunlight
Explanation: Plants prepare their food through the process of photosynthesis, which involves using sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to produce glucose and oxygen.
(5). The fastest speed in the universe is the speed of _______.
(a) Jet airplanes
(b) Rocket
(c) Light
(d) Matter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) Light
Explanation: Light travels at the fastest speed in the universe, which is approximately 300,000 kilometers per second in a vacuum.
(a) 200,000
(b) 300,000
(c) 400,000
(d) 500,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) 300,000
Explanation: Light travels approximately 300,000 kilometers per second in air or vacuum.
(7). The _______ is not a natural source of light.
(a) Star
(b) Sun
(c) Moon
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) Moon
Explanation: The Moon reflects light from the Sun and does not produce its own light.
(8). Firefly and a few sea fish emit light due to:
(a) Sunlight
(b) Chemical reaction
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Chemical reaction
Explanation: Fireflies and some sea fish emit light through a chemical reaction called bioluminescence.
(9). The objects which emit light are called _______ objects.
(a) Luminous
(b) Non-luminous
(c) Opaque
(d) Heavenly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Luminous
Explanation: Luminous objects emit light. Examples include the Sun, stars, and light bulbs.
(10). When light striking the objects is reflected towards our eyes, they are called _______ objects.
(a) Luminous
(b) Non-luminous
(c) Opaque
(d) Heavenly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Non-luminous
Explanation: Non-luminous objects do not emit light but reflect light from other sources. Examples include a book, a table, and the Moon.
(11). The light from the Sun reaches the Earth after _______ minutes.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) 8
Explanation: The light from the Sun takes approximately 8 minutes and 20 seconds to reach the Earth.
(12). The light reflected from the Moon reaches us in _______ seconds.
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) 1.5
Explanation: The light reflected from the Moon takes about 1.5 seconds to reach us on Earth.
(13). The Moon is not a natural source of light. Why does it look bright?
(a) It stores light in the day and reflects it at night
(b) Reflect light from the Sun
(c) Moon is a natural source of light
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Reflect light from the Sun
Explanation: The Sun is the primary source of light in our solar system, emitting light and heat. The Moon reflects light from the Sun, making it visible to us on Earth. Planets also reflect light from the Sun, making them visible in the night sky.
(14). The objects through which light can pass completely are called _______ objects.
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Transparent
Explanation: Transparent objects allow light to pass through them completely. Examples include clear glass and water.
(15). We can see clearly across _______ object.
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Transparent
Explanation: Transparent objects allow light to pass through them clearly, making objects on the other side visible.
(16). The objects through which light can pass partially are called _______ objects.
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) Translucent
Explanation: Translucent objects allow light to pass through them partially, making objects on the other side somewhat visible but not completely clear.
(17). The objects which do not allow light to pass through them are called _______ objects.
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Opaque
Explanation: Opaque objects do not allow light to pass through them at all. Examples include wood and metal.
(18). The sailors used light signals for communication before the invention of telephone or radio.
(a) Business men
(b) Sailors
(c) Teachers
(d) Students
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Sailors
Explanation: Sailors used light signals, such as lanterns and flag semaphore, for communication before the invention of telephone or radio.
(19). Air is the example of
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Transparent
Explanation: Air is an example of a transparent substance. It allows light to pass through it easily.
(20). Light travels in a _______ line.
(a) Straight
(b) Zigzag
(c) Wave
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Straight
Explanation: Light travels in straight lines, unless it is refracted or reflected by an object or surface.
(21). When a _______ object blocks the path of light, a shadow of the object is formed.
(a) Transparent
(b) Non-transparent
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Non-transparent
Explanation: Shadows are formed when non-transparent objects block light.
(22). Shadow is made in the _______ direction of the source of light.
(a) Front
(b) Opposite
(c) High
(d) Low
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Opposite
Explanation: A shadow is formed in the opposite direction of the source of light.
(23). When an object is nearer to the source of light, its shadow is _______.
(a) Small
(b) Bigger
(c) Imaginary
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Bigger
Explanation: When an object is closer to the source of light, its shadow appears larger because the light rays diverge more, resulting in a larger shadow. As the distance between the object and the light source increases, the shadow becomes smaller.
(24). When an object is at a greater distance from the source of light, its shadow becomes _______.
(a) Smaller
(b) Bigger
(c) Imaginary
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Smaller
Explanation: When an object is closer to the source of light, its shadow appears larger because the light rays diverge more, resulting in a larger shadow. As the distance between the object and the light source increases, the shadow becomes smaller.
(25). The bouncing back of light from a non-transparent surface is called _______ of light.
(a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Diverging
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Reflection
Explanation: Reflection is the bouncing back of light from a non-transparent surface.
(26). A vibrating object produces _______.
(a) Light
(b) Sound
(c) Space
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Sound
Explanation: A vibrating object produces sound waves, which are perceived as sound when they reach our ears.
(27). We hear sound when it enters our ears after passing through _______.
(a) Space
(b) Vacuum
(c) Air
(d) Light
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (c) Air
Explanation: Sound travels through the air and reaches our ears, allowing us to hear it.
(28). When an object vibrates, it forces the air particles around it to vibrate and thus _______ travel from one plane to another.
(a) Light
(b) Sound
(c) Motion
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (b) Sound
Explanation: When an object vibrates, it creates sound waves that travel through the air, allowing us to hear the sound.
(29). Buzzing of flies and mosquitoes is due to _______ of their wings.
(a) Vibration
(b) Motion
(c) Space
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Vibration
Explanation: The buzzing sound produced by flies and mosquitoes is due to the vibration of their wings.
(30). Sound _______ pass through solid objects.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) Froze
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (a) Can
Explanation: Sound can pass through solid objects, although its intensity may decrease depending on the material and thickness of the object.
(31). Sound _______ travel through water.
(a) can
(b) cannot
(c) freezes
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) can
Explanation: Sound can travel through water, as water is a medium that allows sound waves to propagate.
(32). Sound can travel through:
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Sound can travel through solids, liquids, and gases, but the speed and transmission properties may vary depending on the medium.
(33). Sound travels _______ through solid objects than the air.
(a) Slower
(b) Faster
(c) Moderate
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Faster
Explanation: Sound travels faster through solid objects than through air, as the particles in solids are more closely packed and can transmit sound more efficiently.
(34). The speed of sound in water is almost _______ times greater than air.
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 16
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) 5
Explanation: The speed of sound in air is approximately 343 meters per second (m/s), while the speed of sound in water is approximately 1482 m/s. Therefore, the speed of sound in water is approximately 4.32 times greater than in air.
(35). The speed of sound in solid objects is almost _______ times greater than air.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 10
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) 15
Explanation: The speed of sound in air is approximately 343 meters per second (m/s), while the speed of sound in solids can vary greatly depending on the material. In general, the speed of sound in solids is much greater than in air, often on the order of thousands of meters per second. For example, the speed of sound in steel is approximately 6100 m/s, while in diamond it is approximately 12000 m/s. Therefore, the speed of sound in solids can be approximately 15 to 35 times greater than in air.
(36). Sound cannot pass through _______.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) Space
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) Space
Explanation: Sound cannot travel through space, as space is a vacuum with no air or other medium to transmit sound waves.
(37). Sound cannot pass through space due to
(a) No particles to vibrate
(b) No air to travel
(c) Vacuum in space
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) All of these
Explanation: Sound cannot pass through space because there are no particles to vibrate, no air to travel, and space is a vacuum.
(38). Speed of sound in air is _______ meter per second.
(a) 320
(b) 330
(c) 340
(d) 350
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) 340
Explanation: The speed of sound in air at 20°C (68°F) is approximately 343 meters per second, or about 1,235 kilometers per hour.
(39). Speed of sound in water is _______ meter per second.
(a) 1400
(b) 1500
(c) 1600
(d) 1700
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) 1500
Explanation: The speed of sound in water is approximately 1500 meters per second, or about 5400 kilometers per hour.
(40). Speed of sound in iron is _______ meter per second.
(a) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 5000
Show Answer
Correct Option: (d) 5000
Explanation: The speed of sound in iron is approximately 5,130 meters per second.
(41). Sound is a form of energy which produces _______ in matter particles.
(a) Vibration
(b) Motion
(c) Light
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Vibration
Explanation: Sound is a form of energy that travels as waves through matter, causing the particles of the medium to vibrate.
(42). Intensity of sound depends on its _______.
(a) Faint sound
(b) Buzzing
(c) Loudness
(d) Frequency
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Loudness
Explanation: The intensity of sound depends on its loudness, which is a measure of the energy of the sound waves.
(43). The louder the sound, the _______ is its intensity.
(a) Less
(b) Greater
(c) Zero
(d) Moderate
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Greater
Explanation: The louder the sound, the greater its intensity, as intensity is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the sound waves.
(44). The intensity of sound _______ with the increase of distance from its source.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) No effect
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Decreases
Explanation: The intensity of sound decreases with the increase of distance from its source, as the energy of the sound waves spreads out over a larger area.
(45). The sounds which are pleasant to our ears are called _______.
(a) Music
(b) Noise
(c) Buzzing
(d) Intensity
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) Music
Explanation: Music is a pleasant sound that is produced by voices or instruments and is characterized by melody, rhythm, and harmony.
(46). The sounds which are unpleasant to our ears are called _______.
(a) Music
(b) Noise
(c) Buzzing
(d) Intensity
Show Answer
Correct Option: (b) Noise
Explanation: Noise is an unpleasant sound that is loud, harsh, or discordant and can be irritating or harmful to the ears.
(47). The _______ who landed on the moon use wireless radio system for talking.
(a) Doctors
(b) Engineers
(c) Astronauts
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Astronauts
Explanation: Astronauts who landed on the moon used a wireless radio system for communication, as there is no air in space to carry sound waves.
(48). How does light travel in air?
(a) In a circle
(b) Along curved path
(c) Along straight line
(d) In dispersed path
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Along straight line
Explanation: Light travels in air in a straight line unless it is refracted or reflected by an object.
(49). Which object does reflect maximum light?
(a) White paper
(b) Colored paper
(c) Mirror
(d) Brick wall
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Mirror
Explanation: A mirror reflects the maximum amount of light because it has a highly polished surface that reflects light rays in a regular and ordered manner.
(50). Speed of sound is maximum in:
(a) A metal wire
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Vacuum
Show Answer
Correct Option: (a) A metal wire
Explanation: The speed of sound is generally the fastest in solids, and among solids, it is often fastest in metals. This is because sound waves travel more efficiently through the closely packed atoms and molecules in a solid, compared to a liquid or gas where the particles are more spread out. In a metal wire, the sound waves can travel quickly through the closely packed atoms in the lattice structure.
(51). Which of the following sounds is called noise?
(a) Sound of flute
(b) Rusting of leaves
(c) Pressure horn
(d) Chirping of birds
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Pressure horn
Explanation: The sound of a pressure horn is called noise, as it is loud, harsh, and can be irritating or harmful to the ears.
(52). When water comes in the way of sound travelling through air:
(a) Sound will stop
(b) Sound will slow down
(c) Sound will become fast
(d) No effect on the speed of sound
Show Answer
Correct Option: (c) Sound will become fast
Explanation: When sound travels from air into water, it speeds up because the particles in water are more closely packed together than in air. This causes the sound waves to travel faster through water than through air.
Chapter # 7: Electricity and Magnetism
(1). Electricity is a form of _________.(a) Matter
(b) Energy
(c) Sound
(d) Light
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Energy
Explanation: Electricity is a form of energy that results from the movement of charged particles, such as electrons, through a conductor.
(2). Electricity is commonly known as _______ current.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Electric
Explanation: The term “electricity” is commonly used to refer to the flow of electric current through a conductor.
(3). Current flows through ________.
(a) Vacuum
(b) Air
(c) Cables
(d) Wireless
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Cables
Explanation: Electric current flows through conductors, such as wires or cables, which are made of materials that allow the flow of electrons.
(4). ________ is a basic property of matter.
(a) Atom
(b) Charge
(c) Rubber
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Charge
Explanation: Charge is a fundamental property of matter, along with mass and spin. Charged particles, such as protons and electrons, interact with each other through the electromagnetic force.
(5). There are ________ types of charge.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Two
Explanation: There are two types of charge: positive charge, which is carried by protons, and negative charge, which is carried by electrons.
(a) Heavy vapors
(b) No vapors
(c) Rubbing with air
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Rubbing with air
Explanation: Clouds become charged through a process called triboelectricity or frictional charging, which occurs when different materials rub against each other and exchange electrons. In the case of clouds, water droplets and ice particles rub against each other as they move around in the atmosphere, causing them to become electrically charged. This process is also known as frictional charging.
(7). A ________ is produced when clouds having opposite charges come near each other.
(a) Rain
(b) Snow
(c) Spark
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Spark
Explanation: When clouds with opposite charges come near each other, a spark can be produced due to the discharge of static electricity.
(8). A spark is produced when clouds having opposite charges come near each other is known as ________.
(a) Rain
(b) Snow
(c) Lightning
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Lightning
Explanation: Lightning is a natural electrical discharge that occurs between clouds or between a cloud and the ground when there is a large buildup of electrical charge in the atmosphere.
(9). Lighting of storm is a kind of ________.
(a) Dynamo
(b) Electric current
(c) Static electricity
(d) Cloud
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Static electricity
Explanation: Lightning is an example of static electricity, where a buildup of charge in the atmosphere is discharged as a spark or lightning bolt.
(10). When a plastic comb is pulled through dry hair, it is ________charged.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Negative
Explanation: When a plastic comb is rubbed against dry hair, electrons are transferred from the hair to the comb, leaving the hair with a positive charge and the comb with a negative charge.
(11). When a balloon is rubbed with woolen cloth, then balloon acquired ________ charge.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) No
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Negative
Explanation: When a balloon is rubbed with a woolen cloth, electrons are transferred from the woolen cloth to the surface of the balloon. Thus the balloon has a negative charge and the cloth has a positive charge.
(12). Similar charges ________ each other.
(a) Attract
(b) Repeal
(c) No effect
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Repeal
Explanation: Similar charges, such as two positive charges or two negative charges, repel each other due to the electromagnetic force.
(13). Opposite charges ________ each other.
(a) Attract
(b) Repeal
(c) No effect
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Attract
Explanation: Opposite charges, such as a positive charge and a negative charge, attract each other due to the electromagnetic force.
(14). The smallest particle of a material is called ________.
(a) Matter
(b) Atom
(c) Molecule
(d) Mixture
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Atom
Explanation: An atom is the smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element.
(15). The ________ contains further smallest particles electrons and protons.
(a) Element
(b) Atom
(c) Charge
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Atom
Explanation: An atom contains electrons, protons, and neutrons. Electrons and protons are the smallest charged particles.
(16). When protons and electrons are equal in number, then an atom is ________.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Neutral
Explanation: When an atom has an equal number of protons and electrons, it is electrically neutral.
(17). On neutral atom, there is ________ charge.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) No
Explanation: A neutral atom has the same number of positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons. Since the number of protons and electrons are the same in a neutral atom, the overall charge of a neutral atom is zero.
(18). A proton has a ________ charge.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Positive
Explanation: A proton is a positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.
(19). Electron has a ________ charge.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Negative
Explanation: An electron is a negatively charged subatomic particle found outside the nucleus of an atom.
(20). Protons and electrons are ________ in number in an atom.
(a) Different
(b) Equal
(c) Excess protons
(d) Excess electron
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Equal
Explanation: In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
(21). As a whole, atom is ________.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Neutral
Explanation: An atom as a whole is neutral because it has equal numbers of protons (positively charged) and electrons (negatively charged), which balance each other out.
(22). The material which loses electron becomes ________ charged.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Positive
Explanation: When a material loses electrons, it becomes positively charged because it has more protons than electrons.
(23). The material which gains excess of electrons become ________ charged.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Negative
Explanation: When a material gains excess electrons, it becomes negatively charged because it has more electrons than protons.
(24). The material which has a deficiency of electron means ________ charge.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Positive
Explanation: When a material has a deficiency of electrons, it means it has more protons than electrons, resulting in a positive charge.
(25). The flow of electric charge is known as ________.
(a) Static electricity
(b) Electric current
(c) Charge
(d) Electron
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Electric current
Explanation: Electric current is the flow of electric charge. It is typically measured in amperes (A).
(26). A ________ is used to control the flow of charge.
(a) Charge
(b) Bulb
(c) Switch
(d) Light
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Switch
Explanation: A switch is a device used to open or close an electric circuit, thereby controlling the flow of electric current.
(27). The ________ of flow of current is called electric circuit.
(a) Speed
(b) Circuit
(c) Path
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Path
Explanation: An electric circuit is the path along which electric current flows. It typically includes a source of electricity (such as a battery), conductors (such as wires), and various components (such as resistors, capacitors, and switches).
(28). What is/are the components of electric circuit?
(a) Bulb
(b) Battery or cell
(c) Switch
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: The components of an electric circuit can include a wide range of devices and elements, such as bulbs (light bulbs), batteries or cells, switches, resistors, capacitors, inductors, transformers, diodes, transistors, integrated circuits, and more.
(29). Battery is a source of ________ current.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Electric
Explanation: A battery is a device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy, providing a source of electric current.
(30). The current can flow through ________ circuit.
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) OFF
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Closed
Explanation: An electric circuit can be either open or closed. In a closed circuit, the path for the flow of electric current is complete, allowing the current to flow. In an open circuit, the path is broken, preventing the flow of current.
(31). When the switch is turned ON, the circuit becomes complete or CLOSED.
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Solar
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Closed
Explanation: When the switch is turned ON, it closes the circuit, allowing the flow of electric current through it. This is known as a closed circuit.
(32). When the switch is turned OFF, the circuit becomes incomplete or OPEN.
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Solar
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Open
Explanation: When the switch is turned OFF, it opens the circuit, breaking the path for the flow of electric current. This is known as an open circuit.
(33). When the current stops flowing through the circuit is called ________ circuit.
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Solar
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Open
Explanation: When the current stops flowing through the circuit, it is called an open circuit, as the path for the flow of electric current is broken.
(34). Then the current starts flowing through the circuit is called ________ circuit.
(a) Open
(b) Closed
(c) Solar
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Closed
Explanation: When the current starts flowing through the circuit, it is called a closed circuit, as the path for the flow of electric current is complete.
(35). The materials through which current can pass are called ________.
(a) Conductors
(b) Insulators
(c) Wood
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Conductors
Explanation: Conductors are materials that allow electric current to pass through them easily. Metals like copper, silver, and iron are good conductors.
(36). The materials through which current cannot pass are called ________.
(a) Conductors
(b) Insulators
(c) Iron
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Insulators
Explanation: Insulators are materials that do not allow electric current to pass through them easily. Non-metals like wood, rubber, and plastic are good insulators.
(37). The iron, copper and other metallic objects are ________.
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Metallic objects
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: Iron, copper, and other metallic objects are all conductors of electricity.
(38). Wood, rubber and plastic are ________.
(a) Wood
(b) Rubber
(c) Plastic
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: Wood, rubber, and plastic are all insulators of electricity.
(39). ________ is insulator for electricity but conductor for heat.
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Diamond
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Diamond
Explanation: Diamond is an excellent insulator of electricity but a good conductor of heat.
(40). A fuse is used in a circuit for the ________ use of electricity.
(a) Harm
(b) Safe
(c) Less
(d) High
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Safe
Explanation: A fuse is used in a circuit to protect against excessive current flow, which could lead to harm or damage. It is designed to melt and break the circuit if the current exceeds a certain safe level.
(41). ________ is a piece of thin wire that is used in an electric circuit to protect electrical appliances.
(a) Battery
(b) Appliances
(c) Fuse
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Fuse
Explanation: A fuse is a thin wire that is designed to melt and break the circuit if the current exceeds a certain safe level, protecting electrical appliances from damage.
(42). When excessive current passes through the fuse, it may cause ________ the circuit.
(a) make
(b) break
(c) high current
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) break
Explanation: When excessive current passes through the fuse, it causes the fuse to melt and break the circuit, stopping the flow of current to prevent damage.
(43). When excessive current passes through the fuse, it will blow immediately and the current will ________ flowing.
(a) Start
(b) Stop
(c) Fast
(d) Slow
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Stop
Explanation: When excessive current passes through the fuse, it will blow immediately, causing the circuit to break and stopping the flow of current.
(44). Circuit breakers are used these days instead of ________.
(a) Battery
(b) Appliances
(c) Fuse
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Fuse
Explanation: Circuit breakers are used instead of fuses in modern electrical circuits because they can be reset after tripping, while fuses need to be replaced.
(45). The instant tripping of the circuit breaker ________ the current flow.
(a) Start
(b) Stop
(c) Fast
(d) Slow
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Stop
Explanation: The instant tripping of the circuit breaker stops the current flow, preventing any damage to the electrical appliances or the circuit itself.
(46). A piece of metal which has the ability to attract some materials (iron) is known as ________.
(a) Gold
(b) Copper
(c) Magnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Magnet
Explanation: A magnet is a piece of metal that has the ability to attract certain materials, such as iron, nickel, and cobalt.
(47). Materials which are ________ by the magnet are called magnetic materials.
(a) Diverging
(b) Dispersed
(c) Attracted
(d) Not attracted
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Attracted
Explanation: Materials that are attracted by a magnet are called magnetic materials, such as iron, nickel, and cobalt.
(48). Examples of magnetic materials are:
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Cobalt
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: All of the listed materials, iron, nickel, and cobalt, are examples of magnetic materials.
(49). Materials which are not attracted by the magnet are called ________ materials.
(a) Diverging
(b) Dispersed
(c) Attracted
(d) Not attracted
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Not attracted
Explanation: Materials that are not attracted by a magnet are called non-magnetic materials, such as wood, glass, plastic, and rubber.
(50). Examples of non-magnetic materials are:
(a) Cooper
(b) Wood, glass
(c) Plastic, rubber
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: All of the listed materials, copper, wood, glass, plastic, and rubber, are examples of non-magnetic materials. They do not have magnetic properties and are not attracted to magnets.
(51). ________ materials can be magnetized to make magnets.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Non magnetic
(c) Plastic
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Magnetic
Explanation: Magnetic materials can be magnetized to make magnets, while non-magnetic materials cannot.
(52). Natural magnet was discovered by ________ over 2000 years ago.
(a) Italian
(b) Greeks
(c) Turkish
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Greeks
Explanation: The Greeks discovered natural magnets over 2000 years ago.
(53). Magnet has ________ poles. North and South Pole.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Two
Explanation: A magnet has two poles: a north pole and a south pole.
(54). A freely suspended magnet always points in the ________ direction.
(a) South-east
(b) East-west
(c) North-south
(d) North-west
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) North-south
Explanation: A freely suspended magnet always points in the north-south direction, aligning itself with the Earth’s magnetic field.
(55). The end of a bar magnet that points towards the north is called its ________.
(a) North pole
(b) South pole
(c) Center pole
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) North pole
Explanation: The end of a bar magnet that points towards the north is called its north pole.
(56). The end of a bar magnet that points towards the south is called its ________.
(a) North pole
(b) South pole
(c) Center pole
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) South pole
Explanation: The end of a bar magnet that points towards the south is called its south pole.
(57). The ________ of a magnet are called its magnetic poles.
(a) Middle
(b) Center
(c) Ends
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Ends
Explanation: The ends of a magnet are called its magnetic poles.
(58). In a magnet, usually, ________ color is coated to show the North Pole.
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Yellow
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Red
Explanation: In a magnet, usually, red color is coated to show the North Pole, while the South Pole is usually indicated by blue.
(59). In a magnet, usually, ________ color is coated to show the South Pole.
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Yellow
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Blue
Explanation: In a magnet, usually, blue color is coated to show the South Pole, while the North Pole is usually indicated by red.
(60). The magnetic force of the magnet is the ________ at the magnetic poles.
(a) Weak
(b) Weakest
(c) Strong
(d) Strongest
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Strongest
Explanation: The magnetic force of the magnet is the strongest at the magnetic poles.
(61). Two like magnetic poles ________ each other.
(a) Attract
(b) Repel
(c) Diverge
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Repel
Explanation: Like magnetic poles repel each other, meaning that two north poles or two south poles will push away from each other.
(62). Two unlike (opposite) poles ________ each other.
(a) Attract
(b) Repel
(c) Diverge
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Attract
Explanation: Unlike (opposite) magnetic poles attract each other, meaning that a north pole and a south pole will be drawn toward each other.
(63). The Earth behaves like a huge ________.
(a) Ring magnet
(b) U magnet
(c) Disc magnet
(d) Bar magnet
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Bar magnet
Explanation: The Earth behaves like a huge bar magnet because it has a magnetic field similar to that of a bar magnet, with north and south poles. This magnetic field extends from the Earth’s interior into space and influences the behavior of magnetic materials and compass needles.
(64). ________ is used to find the direction at any place.
(a) Magnetic iron
(b) Ring magnet
(c) Magnetic compass
(d) Disk magnet
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Magnetic compass
Explanation: A magnetic compass is used to find the direction at any place by aligning itself with the Earth’s magnetic field.
(65). A _________ chip is built in a credit card of a bank.
(a) magnetic
(b) electric
(c) solar
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) magnetic
Explanation: A magnetic chip is built in a credit card of a bank, used for storing data and enabling transactions.
(66). The ATM machine is programmed to ________ the data of the user present in the chip.
(a) summarize
(b) explore
(c) read
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) read
Explanation: The ATM machine is programmed to read the data of the user present in the chip, such as account information and transaction details.
(67). There are ________ types of a magnet.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Three
Explanation: There are three main types of magnets: Temporary, permanent, and electromagnet.
(68). Magnet made by iron is ________.
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Temporary magnet
Explanation: Some iron and iron alloys act as temporary magnets.
(69). Magnet made by steel is ________.
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Permanent magnet
Explanation: A magnet made by steel is a permanent magnet, meaning it retains its magnetism for a long time.
(70). When an iron nail or rod is placed in a current-carrying coil, it becomes a magnet, this is known as ________.
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Electromagnet
Explanation: When an iron nail or rod is placed in a current-carrying coil, it becomes a magnet due to the magnetic field generated by the electric current. This is known as an electromagnet.
(71). Electromagnet is a ________ magnet.
(a) Permanent
(b) Temporary
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Temporary
Explanation: An electromagnet is a temporary magnet that only produces a magnetic field when an electric current is flowing through it.
(72). The flow of current in an electric circuit is controlled by:
(a) Bulb
(b) Copper wire
(c) Switch
(d) Rubber
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Switch
Explanation: A switch is used to control the flow of electric current in an electric circuit. When the switch is on, current flows, and when it’s off, current does not flow.
(73). Current can easily pass through:
(a) Steel paper clip
(b) Glass strip
(c) Plastic comb
(d) Wooden spoon
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Steel paper clip
Explanation: Steel is a good conductor of electricity, so current can easily pass through a steel paper clip.
(74). How many poles are there of a ring-shaped magnet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 2
Explanation: A ring-shaped magnet has two poles: a north pole and a south pole.
(75). A freely suspended bar magnet always stays along:
(a) East-west direction
(b) North-south direction
(c) Any direction
(d) Keeps oscillating
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) North-south direction
Explanation: A freely suspended bar magnet aligns itself along the north-south direction due to the Earth’s magnetic field.
(76). Which one is a true statement?
(a) North pole attracts north pole
(b) North pole repels north pole
(c) South pole repels north pole
(d) South pole attracts south pole
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) North pole repels north pole
Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, so the north pole of a magnet repels another north pole.
(77). Which type of magnet is made by iron?
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Temporary magnet
Explanation: Iron is commonly used to make temporary magnets, which become magnetic when exposed to a magnetic field but lose their magnetism once the field is removed.
(78). Which type of magnet is made by steel?
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Permanent magnet
Explanation: Steel is commonly used to make permanent magnets because it retains its magnetism over time. Steel has a good ability to hold a magnetic charge, making it ideal for permanent magnets.
(79). When an iron nail or rod is placed in a current-carrying coil, it becomes a magnet due to the magnetic field generated by the electric current. This is known as ________.
(a) Temporary magnet
(b) Permanent magnet
(c) Electromagnet
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Electromagnet
Explanation: When an iron nail or rod is placed in a current-carrying coil, it becomes a magnet due to the magnetic field generated by the electric current. This is known as an electromagnet.
(80). Electromagnet is a ________ magnet.
(a) Permanent
(b) Temporary
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Temporary
Explanation: An electromagnet is a temporary magnet because it only becomes magnetic when electric current flows through the coil. Once the current is stopped, it does not remain magnetic.
(81). The flow of current in an electric circuit is controlled by:
(a) Bulb
(b) Copper wire
(c) Switch
(d) Rubber
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Switch
Explanation: The flow of current in an electric circuit is controlled by a switch, which can be turned on or off to allow or stop the flow of electricity.
(82). Current can easily pass through:
(a) Steel paper clip
(b) Glass strip
(c) Plastic comb
(d) Wooden spoon
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Steel paper clip
Explanation: Current can easily pass through conductive materials like metals, such as a steel paper clip.
(83). How many poles are there of a ring-shaped magnet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 2
Explanation: A ring-shaped magnet typically has two poles: a north pole and a south pole.
(84). A freely suspended bar magnet always stays along:
(a) East-west direction
(b) North-south direction
(c) Any direction
(d) Keeps oscillating
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) North-south direction
Explanation: A freely suspended bar magnet always aligns itself along the north-south direction due to the Earth’s magnetic field.
(85). Which one is a true statement?
(a) North pole attracts north pole
(b) North pole repels north pole
(c) South pole repels north pole
(d) South pole attracts south pole
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) North pole repels north pole
Explanation: Like magnetic poles repel each other, meaning that two north poles or two south poles will push away from each other.
Chapter # 8: Structure of Earth
(1). The only planet of the solar system where conditions are suitable for the existence of life is ________.(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Earth
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Earth
Explanation: Earth is the only planet in our solar system where conditions are suitable for the existence of life as we know it.
(2). The diameter of the Earth is ________km.
(a) 11800 km
(b) 12800 km
(c) 12000 km
(d) 13800 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 12800 km
Explanation: The diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,800 kilometers.
(3). The distance of the Earth from the sun is ________million km.
(a) 130
(b) 140
(c) 150
(d) 170
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 150
Explanation: The average distance of the Earth from the Sun is approximately 150 million kilometers.
(4). There are ________ layers of the Earth.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Three
Explanation: The Earth is composed of three main layers: the crust, the mantle, and the core.
(5). The outer shell of the Earth is called ________.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Crust
Explanation: The outermost layer of the Earth is called the crust.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Crust
Explanation: We live on the Earth’s crust, which is the outermost layer of the planet.
(7). ________ contains lofty mountains, deep oceans, rivers, green fields, rural and urban dwellings.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Crust
Explanation: The Earth’s crust contains various geographical features such as mountains, oceans, rivers, and human settlements.
(8). ________ consists of solid matter.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Crust
Explanation: The Earth’s crust is made up of solid rocks and minerals.
(9). The average thickness of the crust of the Earth is ________.
(a) 1 to 70 km
(b) 5 to 70 km
(c) 10 to 70 km
(d) 10 to 700 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 5 to 70 km
Explanation: The average thickness of the Earth’s crust is approximately 5 to 70 kilometers.
(10). Beneath the oceans, the thickness of crust is about ________ km.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 5
Explanation: Beneath the oceans, the thickness of the Earth’s crust is relatively thin, approximately 5 kilometers.
(11). The layer of the Earth under the crust is called ________.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Mantle
Explanation: The layer of the Earth under the crust is called the mantle.
(12). The biggest part of the Earth by volume is ________.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Mantle
Explanation: The mantle is the largest part of the Earth by volume.
(13). The thickness of the mantle is about ________.
(a) 2900 km
(b) 3900 km
(c) 3000 km
(d) 13800 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 3900 km
Explanation: The thickness of the mantle is about 3900 km.
(14). ________ is extremely hot and highly thick fluid like honey.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Mantle
Explanation: The mantle is extremely hot and has the consistency of a highly viscous fluid.
(15). The hot fluid in ________ of the Earth comes out of the Earth surface in form of lava during volcanic eruption.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Mantle
Explanation: The hot fluid in the mantle of the Earth comes out of the Earth’s surface in the form of lava during volcanic eruptions.
(16). The central part of the Earth is called the ________.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Core
Explanation: The central part of the Earth is called the core.
(17). The hottest part of the Earth is its ________.
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Core
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Core
Explanation: The hottest part of the Earth is its core, where temperatures can reach up to 7000°C.
(18). The temperature of the core is about ________°C.
(a) 4000
(b) 5000
(c) 6000
(d) 7000
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 5000
Explanation: The temperature of the core is about 5000°C.
(19). The Earth’s core consists of ________ parts.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Two
Explanation: The Earth’s core consists of two parts: the outer core and the inner core or internal and external core.
(20). Internal core is ________.
(a) Solid
(b) Complete liquid
(c) Molten fluid
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Solid
Explanation: The inner core of the Earth is believed to be solid due to intense pressure, despite its extremely high temperature.
(21). External core is in the form of a thick black ________ which contains elements like iron and nickel.
(a) Solid
(b) Complete liquid
(c) Molten fluid
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Molten fluid
Explanation: The external core of the Earth is in the form of a thick black molten fluid which contains elements like iron and nickel.
(22). Internal core contains elements like iron and nickel.
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) Mantle
(d) Crust
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Internal
Explanation: The internal core of the Earth contains elements like iron and nickel.
(23). The soil on the Earth’s surface is formed by a very slow process of _________ weathering.
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rock
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Rock
Explanation: The soil on the Earth’s surface is formed by a very slow process of rock weathering.
(24). It takes about 1000 years to make only a ________ cm thick layer of soil.
(a) 5
(b) 50
(c) 500
(d) 5000
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 5
Explanation: The soil on the Earth’s surface is formed by a very slow process of rock weathering. It takes about 1000 years to make only a 5 cm thick layer of soil.
(25). The volume of the internal core of the Earth is ________ of the total volume of the Earth.
(a) 16%
(b) 33%
(c) 50%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 16%
Explanation: The volume of the internal core of the Earth is approximately 16% of the total volume of the Earth.
(26). The weight of the internal core of the Earth is ________ of the total of the Earth.
(a) 16%
(b) 33%
(c) 50%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 33%
Explanation: The weight of the internal core of the Earth is approximately 33% of the total of the Earth.
(27). The ________ of the Earth’s surface is covered by water.
(a) 1%
(b) 70%
(c) 2%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 70%
Explanation: Approximately 70% of the Earth’s surface is covered by water.
(28). About ________ of the water on Earth’s surface is frozen.
(a) 1%
(b) 70%
(c) 2%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 2%
Explanation: About 2% of the water on Earth’s surface is frozen in the form of ice caps and glaciers.
(29). About ________ of the water in the oceans is salty.
(a) 1%
(b) 70%
(c) 2%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) 97%
Explanation: About 97% of the water in the oceans is salty.
(30). The fresh water available to mankind is about ________ of the total water on the Earth’s surface.
(a) 1%
(b) 70%
(c) 2%
(d) 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 1%
Explanation: The fresh water available to mankind is approximately 1% of the total water on the Earth’s surface.
(31). The water on the Earth is found in ________ states.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Three
Explanation: Water on Earth is found in three states: solid (ice), liquid (water), and gas (water vapor).
(32). On Earth, the water is found in:
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: On Earth, water is found in all three states: solid (ice), liquid (water), and gas (water vapor).
(33). Glaciers, rain, lakes, springs, and underground water are the sources of ________ water.
(a) Salty
(b) Polluted
(c) Dirty
(d) Fresh
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Fresh
Explanation: Glaciers, rain, lakes, springs, and underground water are sources of fresh water, which is not salty, polluted, or dirty.
(34). Water undergoes in a big cyclic process called ______ cycle.
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Water
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Water
Explanation: Water undergoes a big cyclic process called the water cycle, which includes processes like evaporation, condensation, precipitation, and transpiration.
(35). The evaporated water from water bodies comes back to:
(a) Cloud
(b) Sea
(c) Air
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Sea
Explanation: The evaporated water from water bodies, such as oceans, rivers, and lakes, eventually condenses in the atmosphere to form clouds. These clouds can then release precipitation in the form of rain or snow, and this water returns to the Earth’s surface, including back to the seas and other bodies of water.
(36). Major part of the Earth is made up of ________.
(a) Salt
(b) Mountains
(c) Rocks
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Rocks
Explanation: The major part of the Earth’s crust is made up of rocks.
(37). The breakdown of rocks by sunshine, severe rains, and fast wind blowing is called ________.
(a) Rain
(b) Cloud
(c) Weathering
(d) Snow
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Weathering
Explanation: Weathering is the process of breaking down rocks by exposure to sunlight, rain, wind, and other environmental factors.
(38). Weathering is a very ______ process.
(a) Slow
(b) Fast
(c) No
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Slow
Explanation: Weathering is generally a slow process that occurs over long periods of time.
(39). Weathering process converts rocks into small particles causing the formation of ______ on the Earth’s surface.
(a) Lakes
(b) Mountains
(c) Soil
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Soil
Explanation: The weathering process converts rocks into small particles, leading to the formation of soil on the Earth’s surface.
(40). ________ is the organic matter produced by the decay of vegetables, plants, and dead animals.
(a) Salt
(b) Plants
(c) Humus
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Humus
Explanation: Humus is the organic matter produced by the decay of vegetables, plants, and dead animals. It is an essential component of soil and contributes to its fertility.
(41). Humans retain moisture in the soil and make the soil ________.
(a) Rough
(b) Salty
(c) Fertile
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Fertile
Explanation: Humans retain moisture in the soil through irrigation and other methods, making the soil more fertile and suitable for agriculture.
(42). The top layer of soil contains a sufficient amount of ________.
(a) Salt
(b) Plants
(c) Humus
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Humus
Explanation: The top layer of soil, known as the topsoil, contains a sufficient amount of humus, which is crucial for the growth of plants.
(43). Below the top layer of soil, a layer of subsoil which contains ________.
(a) Mud
(b) Clay
(c) Rocks
(d) Gravel
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Clay
Explanation: Below the topsoil, there is a layer of subsoil, which contains a higher concentration of clay particles.
(44). The lowest layer of soil consists of ________.
(a) Mud
(b) Clay
(c) Rocks
(d) Gravel
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Gravel
Explanation: The lowest layer of soil typically consists of gravel, which is composed of small rock fragments. These rock fragments are larger than those found in layers above, such as clay or silt. Gravel provides a coarse texture to the soil and forms the base layer of the soil profile.
(45). There are generally ________ types of soil.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Three
Explanation: There are generally three types of soil: clay, sand, and silt.
(46). Clay particles are very ________ in size.
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Moderate
(d) Rocks
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Small
Explanation: Clay particles are very small in size, which is why clay soil has a fine texture.
(47). ________ is soft, sticky, and brownish in color.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Clay
Explanation: Clay soil is soft, sticky, and brownish in color, with a fine texture.
(48). ________ can hold more water.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Clay
Explanation: Clay soil can hold more water than sand or silt soil because of its finer texture and smaller particle size.
(49). ________ is very hard when dry.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Clay
Explanation: Clay soil can become very hard when dry, making it difficult to cultivate or till.
(50). ________ is used to make bricks and pottery.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Clay
Explanation: Clay soil is used to make bricks and pottery due to its ability to be molded and shaped when wet and then harden when dried.
(51). The ________ soil feels gritty and coarse.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Sand
Explanation: Sand soil feels gritty and coarse due to its larger particle size.
(52). ________ consists of mostly silica grains.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Sand
Explanation: Sand soil consists mostly of silica grains, which give it its gritty texture.
(53). ________ is found on coastal areas or river beds.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Sand
Explanation: Sand soil is often found on coastal areas or river beds, where it is carried by water and deposited.
(54). Silt is a mixture of:
(a) Sand
(b) Clay
(c) Humus
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: Silt soil is a mixture of sand, clay, and humus, and it has a smooth, silky texture.
(55). ________ is good for cultivation.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Silt
Explanation: Silt soil is good for cultivation because it has good water retention, good drainage, and a smooth texture that is easy to work with.
(56). The texture of ________ is smooth and silky.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Silt
Explanation: Silt soil has a smooth and silky texture due to its fine particle size.
(57). The moisture present in ________ provides water and minerals to plants.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Silt
Explanation: Silt soil has good water retention and provides water and minerals to plants.
(58). ________ is useful to make pottery.
(a) Clay
(b) Sand
(c) Silt
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Clay
Explanation: Clay soil is useful for making pottery and bricks due to its ability to be molded and shaped when wet and then harden when dried. Sand is useful to make glass and silt is good for cultivation.
(59). Soil is the _______ of many living organisms like earthworms, insects, beetles, rats, rabbits, and many others.
(a) Grave
(b) Home
(c) Feeding
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Home
Explanation: Soil is the home of many living organisms like earthworms, insects, beetles, rats, rabbits, and many others, providing them with shelter and nutrients.
(60). The bacteria and other microorganisms in the soil convert the wastes of living animals and dead plants into useful nutrients. They increase the ________ of the soil.
(a) Water
(b) Mud
(c) Fertility
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Fertility
Explanation: Bacteria and other microorganisms in the soil break down the wastes of living animals and dead plants, converting them into useful nutrients. This process increases the fertility of the soil, making it more suitable for plant growth.
(61). The outer layer of the Earth is called:
(a) External core
(b) Mantle
(c) Crust
(d) Inner core
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Crust
Explanation: The outer layer of the Earth, which is relatively thin compared to the other layers, is called the crust. It is composed of solid rock and is where all life exists.
(62). What are the main types of soil?
(a) Silt, sand and rock
(b) Clay, humus, sand
(c) Sand, silt, and clay
(d) Silt, humus and clay
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Sand, silt, and clay
Explanation: The main types of soil are sand, silt, and clay, which are defined by the size of their particles.
(63). Which type of the soil is good for growth of plants?
(a) Sandy
(b) Silty
(c) Clay
(d) Rock
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Silty
Explanation: Silty soil is good for the growth of plants because it retains water well and has good drainage.
(64). What is the role of living organisms in the soil?
(a) Making soil soft and airy
(b) Making soil hard
(c) Make soil unfit for cultivation
(d) Making the air dry
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Making soil soft and airy
Explanation: Living organisms in the soil, such as earthworms, bacteria, and fungi, play a vital role in making the soil soft and airy by breaking down organic matter and creating tunnels.
(65). The amount of fresh water on the Earth is:
(a) About 1%
(b) About 30%
(c) About 70%
(d) About 97%
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) About 1%
Explanation: About 97% of the Earth’s water is in the form of saltwater in oceans and seas. Only about 1% of the Earth’s water is fresh water, and most of that is locked up in ice caps and glaciers, making it inaccessible.
(66). What is important in the natural manure?
(a) Minerals
(b) The decayed matter
(c) Sand
(d) Salts
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) The decayed matter
Explanation: The decayed matter in natural manure, also known as organic matter or humus, is important because it provides nutrients to plants and helps improve soil structure and water retention.
Chapter # 9: Space and Satellites
(1). Galaxy, stars, planets, moon and some other objects in the sky are known as ________ bodies.(a) Large
(b) Heavenly
(c) Light
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Heavenly
Explanation: Heavenly bodies refer to celestial objects such as galaxies, stars, planets, moons, comets, asteroids, and other objects found in outer space.
(2). Heavenly bodies are a part of the vast space which are collectively known as ________.
(a) Earth
(b) Sun
(c) Galaxy
(d) Universe
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Universe
Explanation: The universe encompasses all of space and time, including all of the celestial bodies such as galaxies, stars, planets, moons, comets, and asteroids.
(3). The invention of ________ made it possible to travel beyond our atmosphere into the vast space.
(a) Airplane
(b) Jet plane
(c) Rocket
(d) Atomic bomb
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Rocket
Explanation: Rockets are the only vehicles that can carry humans and cargo into space, and they have made space exploration possible.
(4). The space age began on ________ when the Soviet Union launched Sputnik-1 in the orbit of the Earth.
(a) September 4, 1957
(b) September 5, 1957
(c) October 4, 1957
(d) October 5, 1957
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) October 4, 1957
Explanation: The space age began on October 4, 1957, when the Soviet Union successfully launched Sputnik 1, the first artificial satellite, into Earth’s orbit.
(5). NASA stands for:
(a) Nation Aeronautics and Space Administration
(b) National Air Space America
(c) National Air Space Administration
(d) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Explanation: NASA, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration, is the United States government agency responsible for space exploration, scientific discovery, and aeronautics research.
(a) Russian
(b) China
(c) American
(d) Canada
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) American
Explanation: NASA is an American agency, part of the United States government, responsible for the nation’s civilian space program and for aeronautics and aerospace research.
(7). ________ is responsible for space exploration and aviation.
(a) Space ship
(b) Aeronautics
(c) NASA
(d) China
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) NASA
Explanation: NASA is responsible for space exploration and aviation research in the United States.
(8). The man stepped on the moon on ________ 1969.
(a) 20th June
(b) 20th July
(c) 2nd June
(d) 2nd July
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 20th July
Explanation: On July 20, 1969, Neil Armstrong became the first human to set foot on the moon during the Apollo 11 mission.
(9). NASA established ________
(a) Internal Space Solution
(b) International Space Solution
(c) International Space Setup
(d) International Space Station
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) International Space Station
Explanation: NASA has played a key role in the establishment and operation of the International Space Station (ISS), which serves as a laboratory for scientific research and international cooperation in space.
(10). ISS stands for:
(a) Internal Space Solution
(b) International Space Solution
(c) International Space Setup
(d) International Space Station
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) International Space Station
Explanation: The International Space Station (ISS) is a large space station in low Earth orbit that serves as a home and laboratory for astronauts from multiple countries.
(11). The MIR is the ________ space station.
(a) Russian
(b) China
(c) American
(d) Canada
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Russian
Explanation: MIR was a space station operated by the Soviet Union and later by Russia. It was the first modular space station and the largest artificial satellite in orbit at the time of its operation.
(12). MIR orbited the Earth for 15 years at a height of ________.
(a) 200 km
(b) 300 km
(c) 400 km
(d) 500 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 300 km
Explanation: The MIR space station orbited the Earth for approximately 15 years at an altitude of around 300 kilometers.
(13). ISS space size is _______ than a Football ground.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) equal to
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) greater
Explanation: The International Space Station (ISS) is larger than a football field. It has a total pressurized volume of 388 cubic meters.
(14). ISS was a joint project of _______
(a) Russia & Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Europe
(d) All of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) All of these
Explanation: The ISS is a joint project of multiple countries, including Russia, Japan, Canada, and several European countries.
(15). ISS has been orbiting the Earth at a height of approximately ________ for the last 20 years.
(a) 200 km
(b) 300 km
(c) 400 km
(d) 500 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 400 km
Explanation: The International Space Station (ISS) has been orbiting the Earth at an average altitude of approximately 400 kilometers for the last 20 years.
(16). ISS completes its one revolution around the Earth in ________.
(a) One day
(b) 365 days
(c) 90 minutes
(d) 24 hours
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 90 minutes
Explanation: The ISS completes one full orbit around the Earth approximately every 90 minutes.
(17). ________ sent Sputnik-2 in space on 3rd November 1957.
(a) NASA
(b) Soviet Union
(c) America
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Soviet Union
Explanation: The Soviet Union launched Sputnik 2 into space on November 3, 1957. It was the second artificial satellite to orbit Earth, after Sputnik 1.
(18). Sputnik-2 carried a ________.
(a) Cat
(b) Rat
(c) Dog
(d) Monkey
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Dog
Explanation: Sputnik 2, launched by the Soviet Union, carried a dog named Laika. Laika was the first living animal to orbit the Earth.
(19). An object moving around a very big heavenly body due to its gravity is called a ________.
(a) Stars
(b) Planet
(c) Satellite
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Satellite
Explanation: A satellite is an object that orbits a larger object, such as a planet or a star, due to the force of gravity.
(20). Moon is a natural satellite of the ________.
(a) Sun
(b) Earth
(c) Star
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Earth
Explanation: The Moon is a natural satellite of Earth, orbiting our planet at an average distance of about 384,400 kilometers.
(21). Mars has ________ moons.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 2
Explanation: Mars has two moons, Phobos and Deimos.
(22). Jupiter has ________ moons.
(a) 79
(b) 82
(c) 27
(d) 14
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 79
Explanation: Jupiter has a total of 79 known moons, with the largest being Ganymede, Callisto, Io, and Europa.
(23). Saturn has ________ moons.
(a) 79
(b) 82
(c) 27
(d) 14
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 82
Explanation: Saturn has a total of 82 known moons, with the largest being Titan, Rhea, Iapetus, and Dione.
(24). Uranus has ________ moons.
(a) 79
(b) 82
(c) 27
(d) 14
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 27
Explanation: Uranus has a total of 27 known moons, with the largest being Titania, Oberon, Umbriel, Ariel, and Miranda.
(25). Neptune has ________ moons.
(a) 79
(b) 82
(c) 27
(d) 14
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) 14
Explanation: Neptune has a total of 14 known moons, with the largest being Triton and Nereid.
(26). Earth has ________ moon.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) 1
Explanation: Earth has one natural satellite, which is the Moon.
(27). The bright object that we see on the horizon just before sunrise or after sunset is the planet, ________.
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Neptune
(d) Venus
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Venus
Explanation: Venus is often called the “morning star” or the “evening star” because it is the brightest object in the sky just before sunrise or just after sunset.
(28). ________ is also called morning star.
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Neptune
(d) Venus
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Venus
Explanation: Venus is often called the “morning star” or the “evening star” because it is the brightest object in the sky just before sunrise or just after sunset.
(29). The Earth rotates about its axis from ________.
(a) East to west
(b) West to east
(c) West to North
(d) West to South
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) West to east
Explanation: The Earth rotates on its axis from west to east, which is why the Sun, Moon, and stars appear to move from east to west across the sky.
(30). The Earth rotates about its axis from west to east. Hence the Sun, Moon, and stars appear to move from ________.
(a) East to west
(b) West to east
(c) West to North
(d) West to South
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) East to west
Explanation: Because the Earth rotates from west to east, celestial objects like the Sun, Moon, and stars appear to move from east to west across the sky.
(31). The spaceships which are made by humans to revolve around the Earth are called__________.
(a) Orbiters
(b) Probes
(c) Artificial satellites
(d) Space rovers
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Artificial satellites
Explanation: The objects made by humans to orbit the Earth continuously are called artificial satellites. They serve various purposes, such as communication, weather monitoring, and research, and differ from spaceships or rockets that travel into and through space but do not stay in Earth’s orbit.
(32). ________ satellites are sent into space by a rocket and are given a right speed for their height.
(a) Natural
(b) Artificial
(c) Airplane
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Artificial
Explanation: Artificial satellites are man-made objects that are launched into space and orbit around the Earth. They are sent into space by rockets and are given the right speed to maintain their height and orbit.
(33). Higher the satellite, the ________ is its speed.
(a) Higher
(b) Slower
(c) Moderate
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Slower
Explanation: The higher the satellite is, the slower its speed. This is because the force of gravity decreases with distance from the Earth, so satellites at higher altitudes experience less gravitational force and need to travel at slower speeds to maintain their orbits.
(34). Higher the satellite, ________ is the time required to complete its one orbit.
(a) Longer
(b) Slower
(c) Lesser
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Longer
Explanation: The higher the satellite, the longer it takes to complete one orbit. This is because the force of gravity decreases with distance from the Earth, so satellites at higher altitudes have to travel a greater distance in their orbits.
(35). What type of signals does the Hubble Space Radio Telescope use for space exploration?
(a) Infrared signals
(b) Visible light signals
(c) Radio signals
(d) Ultraviolet signals
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Radio signals
Explanation: The Hubble Space Telescope uses radio signals to communicate with Earth. These signals are sent from the telescope to a ground station on Earth, where they are received and processed.
(36). Information through Radio, TV and Internet reach in each part of the world because of ________.
(a) Natural satellite
(b) Artificial satellite
(c) Moon
(d) Other planets
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Artificial satellite
Explanation: Artificial satellites are used to transmit radio, TV, and internet signals to different parts of the world. These satellites are positioned in geostationary orbits above the equator, allowing them to cover a large area of the Earth’s surface.
(37). How do we accurately determine our position anywhere in the world?
(a) By using GPS satellites
(b) By relying on radio signals from the Hubble Space Radio Telescope
(c) By triangulating between cell phone towers
(d) By using a compass and map
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) By using GPS satellites
Explanation: The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a network of satellites that orbit the Earth and provide precise location and time information to GPS receivers on the ground. By using signals from multiple satellites, GPS receivers can determine their exact position anywhere in the world.
(38). The satellites revolving in the orbits around the Earth with the same speed as that of the Earth are known as ________ satellites.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) NASA
(c) GPS
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Geo stationary
Explanation: Geostationary satellites are satellites that orbit the Earth at the same speed as the Earth’s rotation, so they appear to be stationary relative to a fixed point on the Earth’s surface. They are positioned in geostationary orbits above the equator.
(39). Geostationary Satellites orbit at a height of about ________ and are positioned directly above equator.
(a) 3600 km
(b) 4000 km
(c) 4600 km
(d) 36000 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) 36000 km
Explanation: Geostationary satellites orbit at a height of about 36,000 km above the Earth’s surface and are positioned directly above the equator.
(40). Geostationary Satellites are commonly used for communication purposes and transmit TV signals across the world.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) NASA
(c) GPS
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Geo stationary
Explanation: Geostationary satellites are commonly used for communication purposes, including transmitting TV signals across the world. They are also used for weather monitoring, navigation, and other applications.
(41). The Earth rotates about its axis with a speed of ________ per hour over the equator.
(a) 1300 km
(b) 1370 km
(c) 1400 km
(d) 1470 km
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) 1470 km
Explanation: The Earth rotates about its axis at a speed of approximately 1470 kilometers per hour over the equator. This speed is highest at the equator and decreases towards the poles.
(42). The whole earth can be covered by three ________ Satellites for global transmission of radio and TV programs.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) Polar Orbiting
(c) Communication
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) Geo stationary
Explanation: Geostationary satellites are positioned in orbit around the Earth at a fixed point above the equator. Due to their fixed position relative to the Earth’s rotation, they appear stationary from the ground. Three geostationary satellites strategically positioned around the equator can provide global coverage for the transmission of radio and TV programs.
(43). For weather information, ________ Satellites are used.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) Polar Orbiting
(c) Communication
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Polar Orbiting
Explanation: Polar orbiting satellites are used for weather information. These satellites orbit the Earth from pole to pole, providing global coverage and collecting data used for weather forecasting and monitoring.
(44). ________ Satellites help to transmit signals of Radio, TV and mobile phones from one place to another.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) Polar Orbiting
(c) Communication
(d) None of these
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) Communication
Explanation: Communication satellites are used to transmit signals of radio, TV, and mobile phones from one place to another. These satellites are positioned in geostationary or other orbits to provide coverage over specific regions.
(45). The study of the Earth from orbiting satellites is known as ________.
(a) Geo stationary
(b) Polar Orbiting
(c) Communication
(d) Remote sensing
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Remote sensing
Explanation: Remote sensing is the study of the Earth from orbiting satellites. It involves collecting and analyzing data about the Earth’s surface, atmosphere, and oceans using sensors and instruments on satellites.
(46). GPS stands for ________.
(a) Global Poles Structure
(b) Global Pole System
(c) Global Positioning Structure
(d) Global Positioning System
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Global Positioning System
Explanation: GPS stands for Global Positioning System. It is a network of satellites that orbit the Earth and provide precise location and time information to GPS receivers on the ground.
(47). What is the primary function of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
(a) To study distant galaxies and stars
(b) To accurately determine the position of objects on Earth
(c) To monitor space weather
(d) To communicate with astronauts in space
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) To accurately determine the position of objects on Earth
Explanation: The primary function of the Global Positioning System (GPS) is to accurately determine the position of objects on Earth. It uses signals from multiple satellites to calculate the exact location and time of a GPS receiver.
(48). Through cell phone, we find the position on the earth within ________ meter accuracy.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 100
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) 10
Explanation: Through a cell phone, we can find the position on Earth with an accuracy of about 10 meters. This is possible because cell phones use GPS signals from multiple satellites to determine their location.
(49). Soviet Union launches 1st ever Sputnik 1 on ________.
(a) October 4, 1957
(b) January 31, 1958
(c) April 12, 1961
(d) July 20, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) October 4, 1957
Explanation: The Soviet Union launched the first ever artificial satellite, Sputnik 1, on October 4, 1957. This marked the beginning of the space age and the start of the space race between the United States and the Soviet Union.
(50). United States launches explorer-1 to explore Van Allen radiation belt ________.
(a) October 4, 1957
(b) January 31, 1958
(c) April 12, 1961
(d) July 20, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) January 31, 1958
Explanation: The United States launched Explorer 1 on January 31, 1958, to explore the Van Allen radiation belt. Explorer 1 was the first satellite launched by the United States.
(51). On ________ Soviet Cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin becomes the first human to enter space and return safely.
(a) October 4, 1957
(b) January 31, 1958
(c) April 12, 1961
(d) July 20, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) April 12, 1961
Explanation: Soviet Cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin became the first human to enter space and return safely on April 12, 1961. This historic flight made him an international hero and a symbol of Soviet space achievements.
(52). Neil Armstrong became the first man to walk on the moon in Apollo-11 mission on ________.
(a) October 4, 1957
(b) January 31, 1958
(c) April 12, 1961
(d) July 20, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) July 20, 1969
Explanation: Neil Armstrong became the first man to walk on the moon during the Apollo 11 mission on July 20, 1969. He famously said, “That’s one small step for [a] man, one giant leap for mankind,” as he stepped onto the lunar surface.
(53). Completion of Global Positioning System (GPS) in _________.
(a) March 1994
(b) November 20, 1998
(c) August 6, 2012
(d) April 12, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) March 1994
Explanation: The Global Positioning System (GPS) was completed on March 1994, when the last of the 24 satellites required for global coverage was launched. GPS provides accurate positioning and timing information to users around the world.
(54). First piece of the International Space Station is launched on ________.
(a) March 1994
(b) November 20, 1998
(c) August 6, 2012
(d) April 12, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) November 20, 1998
Explanation: The first piece of the International Space Station (ISS), the Russian module Zarya, was launched on November 20, 1998. The ISS is a joint project involving multiple countries, and it serves as a laboratory for scientific research in space.
(55). Unmanned spacecraft, a robotic rover “Curiosity” landed on Mars on ______.
(a) March 1994
(b) November 26, 2011
(c) August 6, 2012
(d) April 12, 1969
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) August 6, 2012
Explanation: The robotic rover “Curiosity” was launched on November 26, 2011, and it landed on Mars on August 6, 2012. Curiosity’s mission is to explore the environment of Mars and search for signs of past or present life.
(56). What year was the discovery of the Van Allen Radiation Belts made?
(a) 1957
(b) 1958
(c) 1961
(d) 1962
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 1958
Explanation: The Van Allen Radiation Belts were discovered in 1958 by the Explorer 1 satellite, which was the first satellite launched by the United States. The belts are regions of intense radiation surrounding the Earth, and they were named after their discoverer, James Van Allen.
(57). Countless shining lights seen at night on the sky are; ________.
(a) Stars
(b) Moons
(c) Planets
(d) Different heavenly bodies
Show Answer
Correct answer: (d) Different heavenly bodies
Explanation: The countless shining lights seen at night on the sky include not only stars but also other celestial objects such as planets, moons, asteroids, comets, and galaxies. So, option (d) Different heavenly bodies is more comprehensive and accurate.
(58). How long does it take for a geo-stationary satellite to complete one orbit?
(a) One day
(b) One week
(c) One month
(d) One year
Show Answer
Correct answer: (a) One day
Explanation: A geostationary satellite takes approximately one day (24 hours) to complete one orbit around the Earth. This is because the satellite is in a geostationary orbit, which means it orbits the Earth at the same rate that the Earth rotates on its axis.
(59). First man to step on the moon?
(a) Edwin Aldrin
(b) Neil Armstrong
(c) Yuri Gagarin
(d) Alan Shepard
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) Neil Armstrong
Explanation: Neil Armstrong was the first man to step on the moon during the Apollo 11 mission on July 20, 1969. His famous words, “That’s one small step for [a] man, one giant leap for mankind,” were broadcast live around the world.
(60). The system locates the position of an object on the Earth’s surface is:
(a) GRS
(b) GMS
(c) GPS
(d) PGS
Show Answer
Correct answer: (c) GPS
Explanation: The system that locates the position of an object on the Earth’s surface is the Global Positioning System (GPS). GPS is a network of satellites that orbit the Earth and provide precise location and time information to GPS receivers on the ground.
(61). The first artificial satellite was sent into space in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1957
(c) 1969
(d) 1973
Show Answer
Correct answer: (b) 1957
Explanation: The first artificial satellite, Sputnik 1, was sent into space by the Soviet Union on October 4, 1957. This historic event marked the beginning of the space age and the start of the space race between the United States and the Soviet Union.
Class 5 Chapter # 10 MCQs
Technology in Everyday Life
- Class 5 Science Chapter No. 10 Test # 1
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